1. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
2. Defect management process does not include
a) Defect prevention
b) Deliverable base lining
c) Management reporting
d) None of the above
Answer: d
3. All defects result in failure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
4. In which of the following situation defects will arise?
a) No knowledge of system
b) System is used in wrong way
c) May have coded wrongly
d) Incorrect setup of testing environment
e) All the above
Answer: e
5. Cost of the defect does not increase over the period of time.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
6. Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by users
during...... of the testing process
a) the final stage
b) all stages
c) all stages but after first stage
d) Both B & C
Answer: b
during...... of the testing process
a) the final stage
b) all stages
c) all stages but after first stage
d) Both B & C
Answer: b
7. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
8. While reviewing new defects, if duplicate defects appear in the project, change
their status to either .........., or delete them from the project.
a) closed
b) rejected
c) duplicate
d) both a & b
Answer: d
9. ....... enable you to analyze the progress of defect repairs, and view how long
defects have been residing in a project.
a) Reports
b) Graphs
c) analysers
d) Both A & B
Answer: d
10. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Answer: d
11. You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by
clicking the Defects button on the sidebar.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
11. To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ........
a) Defects > Find Defect.
b) Defects > Search Defect.
c) Defects > Go To Defect.
d) None of above
Answer: c
12. You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields
in the Defects Grid.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
13. You can use the .......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values
in the Defects Grid.
a) Script Editor
b) Defect Editor
c) Scripts Editor
d) Defects Editor
Answer: a
14. You an link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests
and other defects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
15. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in
any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
16. You can link a defect to the test sets.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
17. A defect can be linked directly or indirectly to an entity
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
18. Defects can be found more easily in ________ .
a) Bottom up Integration Testing
b) Top down Integration Testing
c) Big Bang Testing
d) Sandwich Integration Testing
Answer: a
19. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
a) Severity
b) Priority
c) Fix ability
d) Traceability
Answer: b
20. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly
implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
21. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
a) wrong
b) missing
c) extra
d) All the above
Answer: d
c) extra
d) All the above
Answer: d
22. Defect Management process does not include
a) Defect prevention
b) Deliverable base-lining
c) Management reporting
d) None of the above
Answer: b
23. Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects
a) Operational Techniques
b) Functional Techniques
c) Dynamic Techniques
d) Static Techniques
Answer: a
24. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
a) Severity
b) Priority
c) Fix ability
d) Traceability
Answer: a
25. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
26. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools
employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as
a) Process metric
b) Product Metric
c) Test metrics
Answer: a
27. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for
Automation testing.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
28. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will be used in a
project.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
29. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to plan when to stop testing
Answer: d
30. Which of the following is not part of the Test document?
a. Test Case
b. Requirements Traceability Matrix [RTM]
c. Test strategy
d. Project Initiation Note [PIN]
Answer: d
31. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
a) Process metric
b) Product Metric
c) Test metrics
Answer: b
32. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
33. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing. Is the above
statement correct?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
34. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it. Is the above statement correct?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
35. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and
verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and
actual results.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
36. Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis?
a. White box and black box testing
b. White-box testing
c. Black box testing
d. None of the above
Answer: c
37. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with
the system?
a) Usability Testing
b) User Acceptance Testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta Testing
Answer: a
38. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
a) Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
b) Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
c) Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
Answer: b
39. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a) Execution
b) Design
c) Planning
d) Check Exit criteria completion
Answer: c
40. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
41. Which of the below is not a part of the Test Plan?
a) Schedule
b) Risk
c) Incident reports
d) Entry and exit criteria
Answer: c
42. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.
a) Requirement Design
b) Requirement Elicitation
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Requirement Documentation
Answer: a
43. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.
a) We cannot run the test.
b) It may be difficult to repeat the test.
c) It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
d) We cannot automate the user inputs.
Answer: c
44. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.
a) Functional and Behavioral
b) Architectural and Structural
c) Usability and Reliability
d) Algorithmic and Data Structure
Answer: a
45. Test cases are created in which phase?
a) Test Specification
b) Test Planning
c) Test Requirement
d) Test Configuration
Answer: a
46. What is the order of Priority Testing?
a) Unit >>Integration >>System Testing.
b) Unit>> System>>Acceptance Testing.
c) System>>Integration>> Acceptance Testing.
d) System>>Acceptance>>Integration
Answer: a
47. Product Risk affects the quality or performance of the software.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
48. Which is non-functional software testing?
a) Unit Testing
b) Block box testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Regression testing
Answer: c
49. The purpose of requirement phase is
a) To freeze requirements
b) To understand user needs
c) To define the scope of testing
d) All of the above
Answer: d
50. A Plan to overcome the risk called as
a) Migration Plan
b) Master plan
c) Maintenance plan
d) Mitigation Plan
Answer: d
51. Exploratory testing is a -----?
a. Experience-based Test Design Technique
b. White Box Test Design Technique
c. Black Box Test Design Technique
d. Grey Box Test Design Technique
Answer: a
52. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a) Project plan
b) Business plan
c) Support plan
d) None of the above
Answer: a
53. ————is not a Test Document?
a) Test Policy
b) Test Case
c) PIN (Project Initiation Note)
d) RTM (Requirements Traceability Matrix)
Answer: c
54. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
a) Determining the test approach
b) Preparing test specifications
c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
d) Measuring and analyzing results
Answer: a
55. In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?
a) Test implementation and execution
b) Test planning and control
c) Test analysis and design
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: b
a) Test implementation and execution
b) Test planning and control
c) Test analysis and design
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: b
56. Which Test Document is used to define the Exit Criteria of Testing?
a. Defect Report
b. Test Summary Report
c. Test Case
d. Test Plan
Answer: d
57. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side
effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
Answer: b
58. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan?
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c) to know when test planning is complete
d) to plan when to stop testing
Answer: d
59.In addition to adding defects directly in Quality Center, you can also import defect data
from .......... to your Quality Center project.
a) Microsoft Word
b) Microsoft Excel
c) Lotus
d) txt file
Answer: b
60. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) simulating many users
Answer: c
61. What is error guessing in software testing?
a. Test control management techniques
b. Test verification techniques
c. Test execution techniques
d. Test case design/ data management techniques
Answer: d
62. Before launching software which testing is to be done in-house?
a) Beta
b) gamma
c) Alpha
d) None of the above
Answer: c
63. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
Answer: d
64. Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
Answer: a
65. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Big-bang
b) Top down
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrimination
Answer: a
66. Unit testing will be done by
a) Testers
b) End Users
c) Customer
d) Developers
Answer: d
67. The test levels are performed in which of the following order?
a. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
b. It is based on the nature of the project
c. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
d. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
Answer: b
68. Which of the following is / are Integration approaches?
1. Top – Down Integration
2. Bottom - Up Integration
3. Functional Integration
4. Big bang Integration
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) All the above
Answer: b
69. Stubs and Drivers are used in Big Bang Integration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
70. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Stubs are used in bottom-up approach.
2. Stubs are used in Top-down approach.
3. Drivers are used in bottom-up approach.
4. Drivers are used in Top-down approach.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 4
Answer: b
71. What are the objectives of Integration Testing?
a) To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements.
b) To verify that system meets user expectation and needs.
c) To verify that system separately testable modules are functioning properly.
d) All of the above
Answer: d
72. What is Integration Testing?
a) SDLC Model
b) Test Type
c) Test Design Technique
d) Test Level
Answer: d
73. Which of the below testing is related to Non-functional testing?
a) Unit Testing
b) Black-box Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) None of the above
Answer: c
74. ——————is not a Test Level?
a) System Testing
b) Acceptance Testing
c) Functional Testing
d) Integration Testing
Answer: c
75. ——————-are the Testers of Unit Testing?
a) Developers
b) Business Analysts
c) Independent Testers
d) Customers
Answer: a
76. Which testing phase tests individual software modules combined together as a
group?
a) Module testing
b) Integration testing
c) White box testing
d) Software testing
Answer: b
77. What do you call testing individual components?
a) system testing
b) unit testing
c) validation testing
d) black box testing
Answer: b
78. A testing strategy that test the application as a whole.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing
d) System testing
Answer: d
79. A testing strategy that tests the application in the context of an entire system.
a) System
b) Validation
c) Unit
d) Gray box
Answer: a
80. Generally, which testing is used when shrink-wrapped software products are
being established and part of an integration testing?
a. Integration Testing
b. Validation testing
c. Regression Testing
d. Smoke testing
Answer: d
81. A testing conducted at the developer’s site under validation testing.
a) alpha
b) gamma
c) lambda
d) unit
Answer: a
82. When should Regression Testing to be performed?
a) When the project manager says
b) After the software has changed.
c) Whenever software testing team get the time.
d) None of the above.
Answer: b
83. Which of the following statement / s is / are correct?
1. Stubs are dummy calling program.
2. Drivers are dummy called program.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a
84. Who is responsible for Integration Testing?
a) Developer
b) Software Tester
c) Specialist Integration Tester
d) Both a and c
e) All the above
Answer: e
85. The Decision table testing is a ----------?
a. White box Test Design Technique
b. Black Box Test Design Technique
c. Experience-based Test Design Technique
d. Grey Box Test Design Technique
Answer: b
86. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is
called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
Answer: c
87. Which Testing is performed first?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Dynamic testing
d) Static testing
Answer: d
88. Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?
a) Regression testing
b) Retesting.
c) Sanity testing
d) Only A and B.
e) All of these
Answer: e
89. STLC is related to which model?
a) Waterfall Model
b) RAD Model
c) V Model
d) Spiral Model
Answer: c
90. Quality Assurance methods are usually considered
a) Detective
b) Corrective
c) Preventive
d) Proactive
Answer: c
91. ---------- are those software mistakes that occurred during the coding
phase?
a. Defects
b. Failures
c. Errors
d. Bugs
Answer: d
92. Equivalence partitioning is:
a) A black box testing technique used only by developers
b) A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c) A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d) A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
Answer: c
93. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique?
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) Linear code sequence and jump
d) Syntax testing
Answer: c
94. Verification is:
a) Checking that we are building the right system
b) Checking that we are building the system right
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Making sure that it is what the user really wants
Answer: b
95. Unreachable code would best be found using
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) coverage tool
d) static analysis tool
Answer: a
96. Statement Coverage will not check for the following:
a) Missing Statements
b) Unused Branches
c) Dead Code
d) Unused Statement
Answer: a
97. Which is NOT true - The black box tester:
a) should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b) should be able to understand the source code
c) is highly motivated to find faults
d) is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
Answer: b
98. Test cases are designed during:
a) Test recording.
b) Test configuration.
c) Test planning.
d) Test specification
Answer: d
99. Test Conditions are derived from
a) Test Design
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Specifications
Answer: d
100. Which of the below statement is true about the Equivalence Partitioning
technique?
a. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing.
b. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing.
c. The black box testing technique is used only by developers.
d. A black box testing technique that can only be used during system testing.
Answer: a
101. How much testing is enough?
a) This question is easy to answer
b) This question is impossible to answer
c) The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special
requirements
d) This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
Answer: c
102. Sometimes software tester can use only Error Guessing Technique while testing
a software.
a)True
b) False
Answer: b
a software.
a)True
b) False
Answer: b
103. What is ―V‖ Model?
a) Test Level
b) SDLC Model
c) Test Type
d) Test Design Technique
Answer: b
104. Functional testing is a------ ?
a) Test design technique
b) Test level
c) SDLC Model
d) Test type
Answer: d
105. What is Functional Testing?
a) SDLC Model
b) Test Type
c) Test Design Technique
d) Test Level
Answer: b
106. ——————-is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?
a) Requirements Gathering
b) Test Planning
c) Test Closure
d) Test Design
Answer: a
107. Which of the following is not part of the Test type?
a) Function testing
b) System testing
c) Statement testing
d) Database testing
Answer: c
108. ——————-is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?
a) Requirements Gathering
b) Coding
c) Test Closure
d) Testing
Answer: c
109. What is the key objective of Integration testing?
a) Design Errors
b) Interface Errors
c) Procedure Errors
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
110. In which environment we can performed the Beta testing?
a) User's and developer's end
b) Developer's end
c) User's end
d) None of the above
Answer: c
111. are the problems that threaten the success of a project but which has
not yet happened.
a) Risk
b) Bug
c) Failure
d) Error
Answer: a
112. Which Test Document describes the Exit Criteria of Testing?
a) Test Case
b) Test Plan
c) Test Summary Report
d) Defect Report
Answer: b
113. Define the term failure?
a) A human action that produces an incorrect result.
b) Its departure from specified behavior
c) Found in the software; the result of an error.
d) It is procedure or data definition in a computer database.
Answer: b
114. ——————- are the Testers of System Testing?
a) Developers
b) Business Analysts
c) Independent Testers
d) Customers
Answer: c
115. The Regression test case is not a --------?
a) Tests that focus on the software components, which have been modified.
b) Low-level components are combined into clusters, which perform a specific
software sub-function.
c) Additional tests that emphasize software functions, which are likely to be
affected by the change.
d) A representative sample of tests, which will exercise all software functions.
Answer: b