Basic science physics and chemistry 22102 MSBTE Multiple choice questions | imp mc
Chemistry Unit-1 Chemical Bonding and Catalysis
1. Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?a. H & Br
b. N & N
c. Na & Br
d. H & H
Ans.: a
b. N & N
c. Na & Br
d. H & H
Ans.: a
2. When an ionic compound is dissolved in water, the ions in solution can best be
Described as……
a. hydrated molecules only
b. dehydrated ions & molecules
c. hydrated ions only
d. both hydrated molecules & hydrated ions
Ans.: b
3. Which kinds of bonding can be found in a sample of H2o (l)?
a. hydrogen bond only
b. Ionic & nonpolar hydrogen bonds
c. nonpolar covalent bonds only
d. both polar covalent & hydrogen bonds
Ans.: d
4. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons…
a. unequally shared between two
b. equally shared between them
c. transferred fully from one atom to another
d. with identical spins
Ans.: b
5. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of……..
a. its planar structure
b. its regular tetrahedral structure
c. similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atom
d. similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine
Ans.: b
6. Which type of bonding would be expected between S & Cl?
a. polyionic
b. non-polar covalent
c. polar covalent
d. ionic
Ans.: b
7. Which formula represent a molecular substance?
a. Cao
b. Al2O3
c. CO
d. Li2O
Ans.: b
8. Which bond has the greatest ionic character?
a. H-O
b. H-F
c. H-N
d.H-CL
Ans.: b
9. Which molecule is a polar molecule?
a. N2
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. H2O
Ans.: d
10. Which of the following covalent bonds has the greatest polarity?
a. C-O
b. Na-Br
c. S-O
d. Na-I
Ans.: d
11. Which compound contains no ionic character?
a. CaO
b. NH4Cl
c. CO
d. K2O
Ans.: b
12. The forces of attraction that exist between nonpolar molecules are called.
a. electrovalent bond
b. covalent bond
c. ionic bond
d. van der Waals/dispersion forces
Ans.: d
13. Which one of the following is a polar covalent bond?
a. Ca-Cl
b. Cl-Cl
c. P-Cl
d. Si-Si
Ans.: b
14. Element which are good catalyst and have ability to change their oxidation number are……
a. transition elements
b. Nobel gases
c. alkalis
d. all of them
Ans.: a
15. In Haber process bonds between ammonia and iron surface weaken and break during…….
a. adsorption
b. chemisorption
c. both (a) & (b)
d. desorption
Ans.: d
16. How does a catalyst work?
a. by decreasing the activation energy of a reaction
b. by decreasing the pressure of a chemical reaction
c. by increasing the concentration of reactants in a reaction
d. by increasing the temperature of a chemical reaction
Ans.: a
17. Changes in oxidation number of ions which are involved in catalyst is done in…
a. homogeneous catalysis
b. heterogeneous catalysis
c. hypergeneous catalyst
d. hypogeneous catalyst
Ans.: a
b. heterogeneous catalysis
c. hypergeneous catalyst
d. hypogeneous catalyst
Ans.: a
18. Which component is affected when a catalyst is added to a chemical reaction?
a. the amount of substrate
b. the concentration of reactant
c. the amount of product
d. the activation energy
Ans.: d
19. Coordination number in simple cubic crystal structure
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans.: a
20. Electron sea exists in……
a. polar bond
b. ionic bond
c. covalent bond
d. metallic bond
Ans.: d
21. Which of the following is not a strong bond?
a. Van der Waals bond
b. covalent bond
c. metallic bond
d. ionic bond
Ans.: a
22. In crystal lattice ions are arranged in …….
a. two dimensions
b. four dimensions
c. three dimensions
d. single dimensions
Ans.: b
23. Crystal lattice is also known as……
a. lattice triangle
b. space lattice
c. lattice line
d. lattice arrangement
Ans.: b
24. Metals can be hammered into different shapes and drawn into wires hence they are…..
a. soft
b. malleable
c. strong
d. weaker
Ans.: b
25. The three dimensional graph of lattice points which sets the pattern for the whole lattice is called……
a. space lattice
b. simple lattice
c. crystal lattice
d. unit cell
Ans.: d
26. In a metallic crystal :
a. the valence electrons constitute a sea of mobile electrons
b. the valence electrons are localized in between the kernels
c. the valence electrons remain within the field of influence of their own kernels
d. none of the above
Ans.: a
27. If the pressure on a NaCl structure is increased, then its coordination number will……
a. increase
b. decrease
c. either (a) or (b)
d. remain the same
Ans.: a
28. The valence electrons of representative elements are…..
a. in s orbitals only
b. located closest to the nucleus
c. located in the outermost occupied major energy level.
d. located in d orbitals
e. located in the innermost occupied shell
Ans.: b
29. Which of the following bonds would be best categorized as covalent?
I. H-S II. Al-S III. N-F
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I & III
e. I,II & III
Ans.: e
30. Which of the following species below would be considered molecular in nature?
a. C (diamond)
b. C (graphite)
c. Fe
d. AlCl3
e. PCl3
Ans.: e
31. Which of the following BEST explains the relatively low melting point of covalent molecular substances?
a. covalent molecular materials rely on weak electrostatic forces holding the ions together.
b. the ―sea‖ of electrons between the atoms creates relatively weak bonding.
c. the intermolecular forces between the molecules are weak compared to ionic or covalent
bonds.
d. the metals involved create uneven bonding with the non-metals.
e. the similar electronegativity of the atoms causes repulsions between the molecules.
Ans.: a
32. Of the molecule below, only …………is nonpolar.
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. NH3
d. HCl
e. TeCl2
Ans.: a
33. Of the following molecules only ………..is polar.
a. CCl4
b. BCl3
c. NCl3
d. BeCl2
e. Cl2
Ans.: b
34. Which of the following properties does not belong to a covalent substance?
a. Liquid with a low boiling point.
b. Insoluble in water and does not conduct electricity.
c. Soft solid and a very poor conductor of electricity.
d. High melting point and a brittle solid
Ans.: d
35. What is the reason for ionic compound having high melting and boiling point?
a. The bonds between the atoms are strong.
b. A small amount of energy is needed to break the bonds between the ions.
c. Ionic compounds consist of a giant crystalline structure.
d. The bonds between the ions are strong.
36. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. In an electrolytic cell oxidation takes place at a positive anode.
b. In an electrolytic cell oxidation take place at a negative anode.
c. In an electrochemical cell reduction take place at a positive anode.
d. In an electrolytic cell oxidation takes place at a positive anode.
e. In an electrochemical cell reduction takes place at a negative anode.
Ans.: b
37. When an ionic compound is dissolved in water, the ions in solution can best be described as…….
a. hydrated ions only
b. dehydrated ions and molecules
c. both hydrated molecules and hydrated ions
d. hydrated molecules only
Ans.: a
38. Which compound contains no ionic character?
a. CaO
b. CO
c. NH4Cl
d. K2O
Ans.: b
39. Which one of the following describes the major intermolecular force in I2 (s) ?
a. covalent bond
b. ionic bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. dispersion forces
e. dipole-dipole forces
Ans.: d
40. What is the coordination no. of body centered cube?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
Ans.: b
41. Which of the following is a covalent crystal?
a. dry ice
b. rock salt
c. ice
d. quartz
Ans.: d
42. The no. of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of face centered cubic lattice of similar atoms is………..
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
Ans.: b
43. Point which shows position of atoms in a crystal are called…….
a. lattice point
b. lattice lines
c. lattice circles
d. lattice arrangement
Ans.: a
44. In crystal lattice ions are arranged in…….
a. Two dimensions
b. four dimensions
c. Three dimensions
d. single dimensions
Ans.: b
45. Crystal lattice is actually………
a. array of points
b. lines of points
c. sum of points
d. triangles of points
Ans.: a
46.Usual habit of crystals of ice is……
a. cubic
b. monoclinic
c. hexagonal
d. rhombic
Ans.: b
47. Energy which is released when 1 mole of ionic crystal is formed is……
a. lattice energy
b. heat energy
c. molar energy
d. none
Ans.: a
48. very high boiling and melting points are of……..
a. covalent compound
b. ionic compounds
c. metallic compound
d. diatic bonds
Ans.: b
49. Which of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?
a. enzyme catalysis
b. Haber‘s process
c. hardening of animal and vegetable oils
d. cracking of heavy oils for synthesis of gasoline
Ans.: a
50. Select the incorrect statement form the following options.
a. intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of promoters
b. intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the functions of catalyst in
homogeneous reactions.
c. intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of catalytic poisons
d. intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the function of catalyst in
heterogeneous reactions.
Ans.: b
51. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the adsorption theory?
a. the catalyst is more efficient in finely divided state
b. action of promoters is not explained
c. enhanced activity of a rough surfaced catalyst is explained
d. specific action of catalyst is explained
Ans.: b
52. Which of the following process is used for the preparation of sulphuric acid?
a. Ostwald‘s process
b. Bergius process
c. Deacon‘s process
d. Chamber process
Ans.: d
53. Select the catalyst which is used for manufacture of ethanol from glucose.
a. maltase
b. Pt/V2O
c. Zymase
d. Fe2O3
Ans.: b
54 Name of the catalyst which is used for manufacture of glucose from cane sugar
a.maltase
b. Zymase
c. CuCl2
d. CuCl
Ans.: b
55. The adsorption theory is applicable to…………
a. homogeneous catalysis
b. heterogeneous catalysis
c. catalysis
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
56. Name the metal which increases the activity of iron metal when added in small amount
a. Cu
b. Mo
c. Al
d. Mn
Ans.: b
57. The strength of the metallic bond increases with
a. increase in number of valence electrons
b. decrease in number of valence electrons
c. the decrease in size of atom
d. increase in size of atom
Ans.: a
58. Water accumulates in cells of animals and plants due to presence of
a. covalent bond
b. coordinate bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. electrovalent bond
Ans.: b
59. Polar refers to……
a. even-sized electronegativity‘s in a bond
b. bonds that have an uneven distribution of charge
c. bonds that have an even distribution of charge
d. the formation of uneven size ions
Ans.: b
60. Which of the following contain a covalent bond?
a. Li2O
b. NO3
c. Mg3N2
d. NaCl
Ans.: b
61. Which substance has a polar covalent bond between its atoms?
a. NH3
b. NaCl
c. K3N
d. Ca3N2
Ans.: a
62. Which one among the following does not have the hydrogen bond?
a. Water
b. phenol
c. liquid NH3
d. liquid HCl
Ans.: d
63. The no. of lone electron pairs in the N2 molecule is…….
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
Ans.: b
64.Which substance represents a molecule that can combine with a proton (H1+)?
a.NH3
b. Na1+
c. HCl
d. H3O1+
Ans.: a
65. What type of chemical bond holds the atoms together within a water molecule?
a. nonpolar covalent bond
b. ionic bond
c. polar covalent bond
d. hydrogen bond
Ans.: b
66. Classify the O-H bond in CH3OH as ionic, polar covalent or nonpolar covalent.
a. nonpolar covalent
b. none of this
c. polar covalent
d. ionic
Ans.: b
67. Which pair of elements would be most likely to form an ionic compound?
a. Cl & I
b. Al & K
c. C & S
d. Cl & Mg
Ans.: d
68. Which one of the following compound is most likely to be an ionic compound?
a. CCl4
b. CO2
c. KF
d. CS2
69. Process in which catalyst has a different phase to a reaction mixture, this process is known
as…..
a. homogeneous catalysis
b. heterogeneous catalysis
c. hypergeneous catalyst
d. hypogeneous catalyst
Ans.: b
70. Which statement best describes how a catalyst can speed up a chemical reaction?
a. the catalyst binds to enzymes to release substrates.
b. the catalyst makes lower energy pathway available.
c. the catalyst increases the concentration of products.
d. the catalyst increases the concentration of reactants
Ans.: b
71. Repeatable entity of a crystal structure is known as……
a. crystal
b. lattice
c. unit cell
d. miller indices
Ans.: b
72. The atomic diameter of an BCC crystal is…..
a. a
b. a/2
c. a/(4/ √3 )
d. a/(4/ √2 )
Ans.: b
73. Atomic packing factor is……..
a. distance between two adjacent atoms.
b. projected area fraction of atoms on a plane.
c. volume fraction of atoms on a plane.
d. none.
Ans.: b
74. How many nearest neighbors are there for an atom in a hexagonal close-packed crystal
structure?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
Ans.: b
75. Points which hows position of atoms in a crystal are called…….
a. lattice points
b. lattice lines
c. lattice circles
d. lattice arrangement.
Ans.: a
76. The energy released when an electron is added to an atom is the gaseous state is called……
a. electro positivity
b. ionization potential
c. electron affinity
d. electronegativity
Ans.: b
77. Giant ionic structures is also name given to…….
a. ionic lattice
b. crystal lattice
c. metallic lattice
d. covalent lattice
Ans.: a
78. Compound with identical crystal structure and analogous chemical formula are called……..
a. isomers
b. isotones
c. allotropes
d. isomorphs
Ans.: d
79. NaCl is an example of………
a. ionic solid
b. covalent solid
c. metallic solid
d. molecular solid
Ans.: a
80. Statement I : Crystalline solid are anisotropic
Statement II : Crystalline solids are not as closely packed as amorphous solids.
a. statement I is true; statement II is true; statement II is a correct explanation for statement I.
b. statement I is true; statement II is true; statement II is not a correct explanation for statement
I.
c. statement I is true; statement II is false.
d. statement I is false; statement II is true.
Ans.: b
81. Which is classified as nonpolar covalent?
a. the H-I bond in HI
b. the H-S bond in H2S
c. the P-Cl bond in PCl3
d. the N-Cl bond in NCl3
e. the N-H bond in NH3
Ans.: d
82. Which of the following bonds would be best categorized as covalent?
a. Strong covalent bonds between atoms with similar electronegativity.
b. Covalently bound atoms arranged in small individual molecules.
c. Positively charged ions covalently bound with many mobile electrons.
d. none of these.
83. The substance below BEST characterized as having a high melting point and able to conduct
electricity in the liquid state only would be:
a. CH4
b. V2O5
c. CO
d. HF
e. C (diamond)
Ans.: b
84. Of the molecules below, only ………..is polar.
a. CCl4
b. CH4
c. SeF4
d. SiCl4
e. CO2
Ans.: b
85. Which of the following would contain both covalent and ionic bonding?
a. CaO
b. NH3
c. C (diamond)
d. Ca(NO3)2
e. CO2
Ans.: d
86. Why can ionic substance conduct electricity when in solution or molten, but not when theyare in the solid state.
a. When in solution or molten, the protons are free to move, but not free to move in the solid
state.
b. When in solution or molten, the atoms are free to move, but not free to move in the solid
state.
c. When in solution or molten, the ions are free to move but not free to move in the solid state.
d. Electrons cannot travel through solids.
87. Which of the following pairs of element will combine to produce a covalent bond?
a. sodium & chlorine
b. lithium & bromine
c. magnesium & oxygen
d. hydrogen & chlorine.
Ans.: d
88. Which of the following pairs of atoms would form a non-polar covalent bond?
a. C & O
b. N & O
c. Cl & Cl
d. Na & Cl
e. Ne & Ne
Ans.: b
89. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons
a. unequally shared between the two.
b. transferred fully from one atom to another.
c. with identical spins.
d. equally shared between them.
Ans.: d
90. Ions of ionic crystals become free when it is in……..
a. solid state
b. compound state
c. molten state
d. none.
Ans.: b
91. Crystal lattice is also known as…….
a. lattice triangle
b. space lattice
c. lattice line
d. lattice array
Ans.: b
92. The radius ratio in CsCl is 0.93. the expected lattice structure is :
a. octahedral
b. square planer
c. tetrahedral
d. body centred cubic
Ans.: d
93. The no. of atoms per unit cell of bcc structure is……
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
Ans.: b
94. Usual property of ionic crystals is that they are…….
a. stable
b. unstable
c. gaseous form
d. compound forming
Ans.: a
95. Lattice energy is decreased when size of an ion is…….
a. decreased
b. increased
c. remain same
d. no change
Ans.: a
96. Which of the following is not a category of catalysis?
a. homogeneous
b. heterogeneous
c. artificial
d. enzymatic
97. Which of the following process is used for the preparation of chlorine gas?
a. Deacon‘s process
b. Bergius process
c. Ostwald‘s process
d. Haber‘s process
98. The factor which determines the activity of a heterogeneous catalyst is…….
a. total surface are only.
b. the no. of active sites per unit amount of catalyst only.
c. method of preparation, prior treatment only.
d. total surface area, no. of active sites and method of preparation.
Ans.: d
99. Select the incorrect statement about the adsorption theory from the following option.
a. the surface of the solid catalyst possess some isolated active Centre‘s having residual
affinity.
b. due to these Centre‘s , the molecules of the gaseous reactants get adsorbed in unimolecular
thick layer.
c. the adsorbed reactants get activated and then react.
d. the energy required for activation is more than that required for uncatalysed reaction.
Ans.: d
100. What is the role of Mo in following reaction?
N2+3H2⇒ 2NH3
a. catalytic inhibitor
b. catalytic promoter
c. catalyst
d. Auto catalyst
Ans.: b
Unit-2 Corrosion and Electrochemistry
1. Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential……
a. 0.00 volt
b. 1.00 volt
c. 0.10 volt
d. none of these
Ans.: a
2. When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed……
a. Cl2 is evolved at the cathode
b. H2 is evolved at cathode
c. Na is deposited at the cathode
d. Na appears at the anode
Ans.: a
3. Electrolysis is the process in which a chemical reaction takes place at the expense of……
a. chemical energy
b. electrical energy
c. heat energy
d. none of these
Ans.: b
4. During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq) using Cu electrodes, when the current is passed through an
electrolytic solution. Which of the following process will occur?
A.anions move towards anode and cations move towards cathode.
b. cations and anions both move towards cathode.
c. cations and anions both move towards anode.
d. no movement of the ions occur
Ans.: a
5. An electrochemical cell is based upon……
a. acid-base reaction
b. redox reaction
c. nuclear reaction
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
6. During a redox reaction, an oxidizing agent…..
a. gain electrons
b. is oxidized
c. loses electrons
d. is hydrolyzed
Ans.: a
7. Which one of the following will be good conductor of electricity?
a. pure distilled water
b. molten NaCl
c. dilute sol of glucose
d. chloroform
Ans.: b
8. In the electrolysis the process of oxidation occurs at…..
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both cathode and anode
d. in electrolytic solution
Ans.: a
9. In the reduction process the oxidation no. of the element……
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
10. During the electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq) O2 is evolved at……
a. cathode
b. anode
c. both a & b
d. none of these
Ans.: b
11. The e.m.f. produced by a voltage cell is……..
a. electrode potential
b. reduction potential
c. cell potential
d. oxidation potential
Ans.: a
12. Metallic conductors conduct electricity…….
a. with chemical change
b. without any chemical change
c. both a & b
d. none of these
Ans.: b
13. The process of producing the chemical change in an electrolytic cell is called…..
a. electrolyte
b. electrolysis
c. electrodes
d. conductors
Ans.: b
14. An apparatus in which chemical energy in converted to electrical energy is called…..
a. electrolytic cell
b. galvanic cell
c. fuel cell
d. down cell
Ans.: a
15. Electric current passes through both molten and solution form of NaCl because of…..
a. ionic bonding
b. Na+ & Cl- ions
c. ions of water
d. both a & b
Ans.: b
16. Substances through which electric current cannot pass are called…..
a. insulators
b. conductors
c. anode
d. cathode.
Ans.: b
17. Sodium metal is obtained by the electrolysis of fused NaCl in a cell is called….
a. Nelson‘s cell
b. Down‘s cell
c. Daniell cell
d. Voltaic cell
Ans.: d
18. A system containing of electrodes that dips into an electrolyte in which a chemical reaction
either uses or generates an electric current id called…..
a. voltaic cell
b. electrochemical cell
c. voltaic or galvanic cell
d. fuel cell
Ans.: b
19. In lead accumulator the electrolyte H2SO4 solution is…….
a. 30 %
b. 60 %
c. 80%
d. 90 %
Ans.: a
20. During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq) using Cu electrodes Cu is deposited at…….
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both a & b
d. none of these
Ans.: b
21. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to…….
a. prevent action of water and salt
b. keep away the sharks
c. prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks d. make the ship lighter
Ans.: a
22. Electrolyte used for tin plating is
a. sulphide ore
b. stannous sulphate
c. hydrogen sulphate
d. sodium chloride
Ans.: b
23. An electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to drive….
a. chemical reaction
b. physical reaction
c. no reaction
d. none of above
Ans.: a
24. Faraday‘s constant is defined as…….
a. charge carried by 1 electron
b. charge carried by one mole of electrons
c. charge required to deposit one mole of a substance
d. charge carried by two mole of e-
Ans.: b
25. One ampere of current is passed for 9650 seconds through molten AlCl3. What is the weight
in grams of Al deposited at cathode? (Atomic weigh – 27)
a. 0.9
b. 9.0
c. 0.09
d. 90.0
Ans.: a
26. One Faraday of the electricity is passed separately through one litre of one molar aqueous
solution of (i) AgNO3 (ii) SnCl4 and (iii) CuSO4. The no. of moles of Ag, Sn and Cu deposited
at cathode are respectively……….
a. 1.0, 0.25, 0.5
b. 1.0, 0.5, 1.0
c. 0.5, 1.0, 0.25
d. 0.25, 0.5, 1.0
Ans.: a
27. Which among the following metals is employed to provide cathodic protection to iron?
a. Zinc
b. Nickel
c. Tin
d. Lead
Ans.: a
28. During a cathodic protection, the sacrificial anode……
a. accepts electrons from the protected metal.
b. reacts spontaneously with the protected metal.
c. oxidizes more readily than the protected metal.
d. causes the protected metal to become an anode.
Ans.: b
29. Iron corrodes faster in
a. hard water
b. soft water
c. demineralized water
d. distilled water
Ans.: a
30. A piece of Au does not react spontaneously with 1.0 M HCl. Which of the followingstatement is true?
a. Au is a weaker reducing agent than H2
b. Au is a stronger reducing agent than H2
c. Au is a weaker oxidizing agent than H+
d. Au is a stronger oxidizing agent than H
Ans.: a
31. Which of the following metals protects itself by forming a passive layer of its own oxide?
a. Pt
b. Au
c. Fe
d. Al
Ans.: d
32. During galvanic corrosion, the noblest metal acts as ….
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both a & b
d. corroding metal
Ans.: b
33. Cathodic protection corrosion control is most suitable for ……
a. bimetallic couple
b. buried iron pipelines
c. window grills
d. metallic articles completely immersed in water
Ans.: b
34. Anodized coatings are generally produced on……..
a. non-ferrous metal
b. ferrous metal
c. alloy
d. non-metal
Ans.: a
35. Waterline corrosion in steel tank is an example of ……
a. stress corrosion
b. differential aeration corrosion
c. pitting corrosion
d. differential metal corrosion
Ans.: b
36. Ships sailing in ocean suffer from……
a. stress corrosion
b. grain-boundary corrosion
c. pitting corrosion
d. waterline corrosion
Ans.: d
37. Galvanizing is a process of…….
a. coating tin on zinc
b. coating iron on zinc
c. coating zinc on iron
d. none of above
Ans.: b
38. Caustic embrittlement in boilers is an example of ……
a. pitting corrosion
b. differential aeration corrosion
c. stress corrosion
d. grain-boundary corrosion
Ans.: b
39. In which of the following metals is the specific volume of oxide is more than that of themetal?
a. Cr
b. Al
c. W
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
40. Chromate coating are…….
a. non-porous
b. more resistant than phosphate coatings
c. amorphous
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
41. Which of the following metals are more corrosion resistant than expected from their position
in the electrochemical series?
a. Mg
b. CO
c. Al
d. Fe
Ans.: b
42. In anodized Aluminium, the corrosion protection is due to…..
a. passive oxide coating
b. phosphate coating
c. chromate coating
d. organic coating
Ans.: a
43. Differential metal corrosion is an example of …….
a. galvanic corrosion
b. crevice corrosion
c. stress corrosion
d. water line corrosion
Ans.: a
44. During corrosion, evolution of hydrogen occurs in……
a. acidic medium
b. basic medium
c. neutral medium
d. all are correct
Ans.: a
45. Pitting corrosion can be explained on the basis of …….
a. differential aeration
b. size of anode and cathode
c. localized corrosion
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
46. Anodic protection can be applied to…..
a. all the metals
b. more electropositive metals
c. less electropositive metals
d. metals which undergo active-passive transition
Ans.: d
47. The flux used in galvanizing is…….
a. NH4Cl
b. BaCl2
c. NaCl
d. palm oil
Ans.: a
48. The main objective of metal finishing is to modify…….
a. chemical properties of material
b. surface properties of materials
c. physical properties of materials
d. electrical properties of materials
Ans.: b
49. Polarization of electrodes is reduced by ……..
a. increasing the ionic concentration
b. increasing the electrode surface area
c. decreasing the ionic concentration
d. both b & c
Ans.: d
50. The process of electroplating involves...
a. Electrolysis
b. discharge of metal ions at cathode
c. redox reaction
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
51. During electrolysis of KNO3, H2 is Evolved at
a. anode
b. cathode
c. both (a) &(b)
d. None of these
Ans.: b
52. During Electrolysis of fused NaCl, Which of the following reaction occurs at anode?
a. acid-base reaction.
b. Redox Reaction
c. Nuclear reaction
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
53. Which of the following represents the same net reaction as the electrolysis of aqueous
H2SO4?
a. Electrolysis of water
b. electrolysis of molten NaCl
c. Electrolysis of aqueous HCl
d. electrolysis of aqueous NaCl
Ans.: a
54. In a salt bridge KCl is used because
a. it is an electrolyte
b. K+ & Cl- transfers easily
c. Agar- Agar forms a good jelly with it
d. KCl is also present in the calomel electrode
Ans.: b
55. A oxidizing agent is a substance which brings about
a. electron donation
d. oxidation
c. Reduction
d. hydrolysis
Ans.: b
56.In an oxidation process the oxidation number of the element
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change
d. None of above
Ans.: a
57. Which of the following is the definition of oxidation?
a. gain of electrons
b. loss of electrons
c. addition of H2
d. Removal of O2
Ans.: b
58. Which element acts as a reducing agent in the reaction?
Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2?
a.Zn
b. H
c. S
d.O
Ans.: b
59. When the current is passed through an electrolytic solution, which of the following process
will occur?
a. Anions move towards anode & cations move towards cathode
b. Cations & anions both move towards anode
c. Cations & anions both move towards anode
d. No movement of the ions occurs
Ans.: a
60. A cell which produces electric current by redox reaction is called
a. Standard cell
b. voltaic cell
c. reversible cell
d. concentration cell
Ans.: b
61. Which of the following conduct electricity due to the migration of electrons only?
a. Copper metal
b. NaCl Molten
c. NaCl
d. NaCl Solution
Ans.: a
62. Substances through which electric current can pass are called
a. Insulators
b. Conductors
c. Cathode
d. Anode
Ans.: b
63. Metallic conduction is due to the
a. Movement of electrons
b. Movement of ions
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans.: a
64. The flow of electrons are called
a. Electrolyte
b. Electric Current
c. Cathode
d. Anode
Ans.: b
65.A substances which in molten state or in solution form allows electric current to pass through
it is called
a. Electrolyte
b. insulator
c. conductor
d. None of these
Ans.: a
66. The process in which ionic compound when fused of dissolved in water split up into charged
particles is called
a.Electrolysis
b. Hydration
c. ionization
d. Conduction
Ans.: b
67. The reaction in a galvanic cell is
a. Spontaneous
b. Non –Spontaneous
c. Fuel Cell
d. Down Cell
Ans.: b
68. Aqueous copper sulphate solution is electrolyzed using platinum electrodes. The electrodereaction occurring at cathode is
a. Cu 2+ ( aq) + 2e- Cu(S)
b. Cu(s) Cu 2+ (aq) + 2e-
c. 2H2O (l) O2 (g) +4H+ (aq) + 4e-
d. O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) +4e- 2H2O (l)
Ans.: a
69. Conductivity of 0.01M Nacl solution is 0.00147ohm-1cm-1 what happens to this
conductivity if extra 100ml of H2o will be added to the above solution?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains Unchanged
d. First increases & then decreases
Ans.: b
70. The Electrochemical equivalent of a metal is ‗X‘gram coulomb -1
a. x
b. x* 96500
c. x/ 96500
d.1.6 8 10-9 *x
Ans.: b
71. One Faraday of electricity is passed through molten Al2O3 aqueous solution of CuSO4 and
molted NaCl taken three different electrolytic cells connected in series. The mole Ration of Al,
Cu,& Na deposited at the respective cathode is
a. 2: 3: 6
b. 6: 2 :3
c. 6: 3 :2
d. 1: 2 :3
Ans.: a
72. Li occupies higher position in the electrochemical series of metals as compare to Cu since
a. the standard reduction potential of Li+/Li is lower than that of Cu 2+/Cu
b. the standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu is lower than that of Li+/Li
c. The standard oxidation potential of Li/Li+ is lower than that of Cu/Cu2+
d. Li is smaller in size as compared to Cu
Ans.: a
73. Consider the following electrochemical cell
Fig.
In this operating electrochemical cell
a. Electrons flow toward the Cu & the Cu2+ ions Migrate toward the Zn.
b. Electrons flow towards the Cu & the Zn2+ ions migrate the Cu.
c. Electrons flow towards the Zn & the Cu2+ ions migrate the Zn.
d. Electrons flow towards the Zn & the Zn 2+ migrate towards the Cu
Ans.: b
74. During a cathodic protection, the sacrificial anode--------
a. accepts electrons from the protected metal
b. Reacts spontaneously with the protected Metal.
c. Oxidizes more readily than the protected metal.
d. causes the protected metal to became an anode
Ans.: b
75. Consider the following diagram of a piece of iron, cathodically protected by magnesium
Diagram:-
What is happening during this process?
a. Iron acts as the anode & water is oxidized.
b. Iron acts as the cathode & oxygen is reduced
c. Magnesium acts as the anode & iron is oxidized.
d. Magnesium acts as the cathode & iron is reduce
Ans.: b
76. What occurs when a piece of Zn is placed in 1.0 M Cu(NO3)2?
a. [Cu2+] decreases
b. [Zn 2+] decreases
c. [NO3-] increases
d. No change occurs
Ans.: a
77. Pin holes on Zinc – Coated iron articles are less corrosive to iron than pn holes on tin coated
iron articles due to ---
a. High ratio of anodic to cathodic areas.
b. Low reduction potential of tin.
c. Low ratio of anodic to cathodic areas.
d. High rate of corrosion
Ans.: a
78. At low hydrogen overvoltage rate of corrosion of Metals---
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Increases initially & then decreases
d . Remains the same
Ans.: b
79. Which corrosion control Technique is most suitable in case of buried iron pipelines?
a. Anodic Metal coating
b. Anodic Protection
c. Cathodic Protection
d. Corrosion Inhibitors
Ans.: b
80. Atmospheric corrosion is caused by
a. Humidity in air
b. Frequency of rainfall
c. presence of gases like SO2-
d. Presence of O2 in air
Ans.: d
81. Which of the following is an example for anodic coating?
a. Tinning
b. Galvanizing
c. Painting
d. Chromizing
Ans.: b
82. Which Part(s) of corrosion cell undergoes corrosion
a. Anodic part
b. cathodic part
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Ans.: a
83. Presence of copper impurity in Zinc causes
a. Waterline Corrosion
b. Galvanic Corrosion
c. pitting Corrosion
d. Crevice Corrosion.
Ans.: b
84. Electrochemical Corrosion is essentially due to
a. Formation of anodic & cathodic areas
b. electrical contact between anode & cathode for conduction of electrons
c. Electrolyte, Usually provided by the presence of Moisture
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
85. On the basis of physical nature & behavior, the corrosion products may be
a. Soluble
b. Insoluble & fixed to the metal c. Discontinuous & not fixed
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
86. Phosphate coatings can be produced by chemical reaction of a base Metal with aqueous
solution of
a. Chromic acid & chromite
b. Phosphoric acid & Phosphate
c. chromate coating
d. organic coating
Ans.: b
87. Which of the following factor accounts for higher corrosion rate
a. large anodic area & small cathodic area
b. small anodic & large cathodic area
c. High Temperature
d. High humidity
Ans.: b
88. Sacrificial anode method of protecting a metal is an example of
a. anodic protection
b. cathodic protection
c. Metal coating
d. organic coating
Ans.: b
89. Anodized coatings have good Resistance to corrosion because
a. They are thicker than neutral oxide films
b. They are thinner than neutral oxide films
c. both (a) & ( b)
d. None of the above
Ans.: a
90. Polarization of anode results in
a. Increase in the rate of corrosion
b. Decrease in the rate of corrosion
c. Increase in the rate of cathodic reaction
d. Increase in the rate of anodic reaction
Ans.: b
91. At high hydrogen overvoltage, the rate of corrosion---
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Increases initially & then decreases
d. Remains the same
Ans.: b
92. Electrolytes decomposes at a specific potential due to
a. Development of electrolytic cell
b. development of galvanic cell
c. development of electrical double layer
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
93. The electrode with lowest hydrogen overvoltage is
a. Zn
b. Ni
c. Hg
d. Pt
Ans.: d
94. For an electrolytic mixture containing Zn2+,Cu2+,Ag2+,Au2+ the ion which is dischargedfirst is ---
a. Zn2+
b. Cu2+
c. Ag +
d. Au3+
Ans.: d
95. In electroplating the article to be placed is subjected to pickling. This is to
a. Remove Grease
b. Increase the rate of plating
c. Remove oxide Scale
d. Get a bright
deposit
Ans.: b
96. Electrodes plating can be used for plating of
a. Metals
b. Semiconductors
c. Insulators
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
98. Conductors & Insulators can be plated by
a. Electroplating
b. Electroless plating
c. Electro polishing
d. None of the above
Ans.: d
99. During plating, Favorable condition having brighter & smooth deposits is
a.Low temperature
b. low metal on concentration
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
100. When the metal structure to be placed is irregular, the process employed is
a. Electroplating
b. Electro less plating
c. electro polishing
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
101. The practical decomposition potential is greater than the theoretical decomposition potential
because of
a. ionization
b. dissociation
c. polarization of electrodes
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
102. Formation of rust on iron is an example of
a. oxidation
b. liquid metal corrosion
c. electrochemical corrosion
d. chemical corrosion
Ans.: b
103. Which of the following is not true for dry corrosion?
a. It takes place in dry conditions.
b. It takes place in heterogeneous metal surfaces only
c. It takes place uniformly.
d. It takes place by direct chemical attack on metal
Ans.: b
104. The corrosion of buried pipelines in passing from one soil type of another is caused by
a. Differential aeration
b. stress
c. Erosion
d. Presence of microbes
Ans.: a
105. Welding is a better joining technique than using mechanical fasteners because it prevents.
a. Stress corrosion.
b. Pitting corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
d. crevice corrosion
Ans.: d
106. During rusting of iron
a. corrosion occurs at cathode.
b. Corrosion product is deposited at anode.
c. Corrosion occurs at anode & rust is deposited at cathode.
d. Corrosion occurs at anode & rust is deposited at anode
Ans.: b
107. The protection of ship hull from marine corrosion by using magnesium sheets of blocks is
an example of
a. Cathodic protection
b. Impressed voltage protection
c. Sacrificial cathodic protection
d. Sacrificial anodic protection
Ans.: d
108. Which of the following types of corrosion does not occur due to formation of oxygen
concentration cell?
a. Crevice corrosion
b. Waterline corrosion
c. Erosion Corrosion
d. Soil corrosion
Ans.: b
109. Wire mesh corrodes faster at the joints due to
a. Galvanic corrosion
b. Stress corrosion
c. Crevice corrosion
d. pitting corrosion
Ans.: b
110. Which of the following cannot be used for sacrificial anodic protection of steel?
a. Pb.
b.Mg
c. Al
d. Zn
Ans.: a
111. Which of the following is not a chemical conversion coating?
a. Chemical oxide coating
b. Ceramic coating
c. Phosphate coating
d. Chromate coating
Ans.: b
112. The process of coating iron & steel with powdered Zinc & Zinc oxide is called
a. Sherardizing
b. Metal cladding
c. Colorizing
d. Chromizing
Ans.: a
113. Zinc can be electrodeposited from acidic solutions, even though the standard electrode
potential of zinc is less than that of hydrogen because of
a. Polarization
b. Decomposition
c. Hydrogen Over voltage
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
114. Which of the following factors does not affect the polarisaton of electrodes?
a. stirring
b. Nature of electrode.
c. Concentration & conductivity of electrolyte
d. None of the above
Ans.: d
115. Which of the following is not a component of electroless plating bath?
a. Reducing agent
b. conducting solution
c. Metal salt
d. Complexing agent
Ans.: b
116. Which of the following factors does not influence throwing power of electroplating bath?
a. Current density
b. Conductance of solution
c. complexing agent
d. competing electrode reactions
Ans.: a
117. In electro deposition of copper from CuCN, NaCN is added to the electrolyte bath.
a. as brightener
b. as structure Modifier
c. to reduce metal ion concentration
d. To enhance electrolyte concentration
Ans.: b
Unit-3 Paint, Varnishes, Insulators, Polymers, Adhesives & lubricants
1. Which of the Following is not the constituent of Paint?
a. Pigment
b. Thinner
c. Anti skinning Agent
d. Alcohol
Ans.: b
2. Which of the pigment gives white colour to the paint?
a. Chromium Oxide
b. Ferric Oxide
c. Zinc Oxide
d. Brown Umber
Ans.: b
3. The function of pigment is?
a. Reduces the fluidity of the paint
b. Provides opacity to the paint
c. Improve the drying quality of paint
d. Prevent gelling skinning of the paint film
Ans.: b
4. The constituents which Increases the random arrangement of pigment particles in paint are
a. Thinners
b. Pigments
c. Fillers/Extenders
d. Thinner
Ans.: b
5. The constituents which reduces the fluidity of paint is
a. Antiskining agent
b. Driers
c. Fillers/Extenders
d.Thinners
Ans.: d
6. An example of bad thermal insulator is
a. Potassium
b. Paper
c. cork
d. wool
Ans.: a
7. Handles of saucepans & other cooking utensils are made up of
a. Thermal conductors
b. thermal Insulators
c. Shares of heat
d. Insulators of electricity
Ans.: b
8. An example of conductor of heat is
a. Paper
b. Cloth
c. Air
d. Aluminium
Ans.: d
9. The insulation ability thermal insulator with the presence of moisture would
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain affected
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
10. Glass wool is a good insulator because it has –
a. Free electrons
b. atoms colliding frequency
c. porous body
d. low density
Ans.: b
11. Thermal conductivity of glass wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in
a. Composition
b. density
c. porosity
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
12. Which plastic materials contain strong cross linking in their molecular structure?
a. Thermoplastic materials
b. Thermosetting materials
c. Both (a) & (b)
d.None of the above
Ans.: b
13. Which of the following is an example of thermoplastic material?
a. Epoxy Resins
b. Nylon 66
c. Teflon
d. Bakelite
Ans.: b
14. The polymer cannot be recycled
a. Thermoplastic
b. Thermosets
c. elastomers
d. all polymers
Ans.: b
15. Name polymer among the polymers which do not soften on heating
A.Bakelite
b. Polythene
c. Polystyrene
d. PVC
Ans.: a
16. Name the polymer that occur naturally
a. Starch & Nylon
b. Starch & cellulose
c. Proteins & Nylon
d. Proteins & PVC
Ans.: b
17. Which is used in the formation of epoxy resin.
a. Phenol
b. Bisphenol
c. Formaldehyde
d. Ethylene
Ans.: b
18. Polyvinyl chloride is prepared from the monomer
a. Ethyl chloride
b. Formaldehyde
c. Vinyl chloride
d. Ethylene
Ans.: b
19. The example of linear polymer is
a. Polystyrene
b. Nylon-66
c. Epoxy Resin
d. Bakelite
Ans.: a
20. The monomer of vinyl chloride contain
a. Single bond
b. double bond
c. triple bond
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
21. Epoxy resin is prepared from
a. Epicholroydrin & bisphenol
b. Epichlorohydrin & phenol
c. Bisphenol & phenol
d. Epichlorohydrin & Formaldehyde
Ans.: a
22. Thermosetting synthetic adhesive is
a. Starch
b. Phenol formaldehyde Resin
c. Asphalt
d. Shellac Resin
Ans.: b
a. adhered
b. adherent
c. adhesive
d. infinitum
Ans.: b
24. The polymer which can be used as synthetic adhesive is
a. Neoprene
b. Buna-S
c. Epoxy Resin
d. Polystyrene
Ans.: b
25. The purpose of lubrication is
a. To reduce friction
b. To reduce wear.
c. To reduce corrosion
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
26. Which one is not a example of solid lubricant?
a. Graphite lubricant
b. Molybdenum Disulphite
c. Polytetrafluoroehylene
d.Multigrade
Ans.: b
27. Apart from reducing friction & wear, the secondary purpose of lubricant is
a. Heat dissipation
b. reducing corrosion
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
Ans.: b
28. For rocket & submarine the lubricant use is
a. Animal oil
b. Vegetable oil
c. mineral oil
d. synthetic oil
Ans.: d
29. The type of lubricant used for cutting tools is
a. Solid lubricant
b. Liquid lubricant
c. Semisolid lubricant
d. all of the above
Ans.: b
30. Solid lubricant is used for
a. cutting tool
b. steam turbine
c. sewing machine
d. Gun parts
Ans.: b
31. oilliness is the property of lubricant
a. absorb on the surface
b. adsorb on the surface
c. Mixed with the surface
d. none of the above
Ans.: b
32. Which of the following is not true for lubricants?
a. A good lubricant should High mechanical stability.
b. A good lubricant should have low volatility
c. A good lubricant should form stable emulsion with water.
d. A good lubricant should have high viscosity index
Ans.: b
33. The temperature at which oil ceases to flow from a on a machinery part is called
a.Flash point
b. cloud point
c. pour point
d. fire point
Ans.: b
34. The example of solid lubricant is
a. Grease
b. Vaseline
c. castor oil
d. Talc
Ans.: d
35. Repeatable unit of polymers
a. Isomer
b. Copolymer
c. Homopolymer
d. monomer
Ans.: d
36. Turpentine oil in paints is used as a
a. Pigment
b. film forming pigment
c. thinner
d. drier
Ans.: b
37. Lubrication is necessary to protect wear & tear caused due to
a. electrostatic force
b. gravitational force
c. frictional force
d. Magnetic force
Ans.: b
38. Select the incorrect statement from the following options
a. Lubricant keep out dirt
b. Lubricant acts as a seal
c. Lubricant Transmit fluid power
d. Lubricant enhances corrosion
Ans.: d
39. The viscosity of petroleum oil for hydraulic lifts is
a. High
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. Very high
Ans.: b
40. On increasing the lubrication, the efficiency of the machine
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain Same
d. Does not get affected
Ans.: a
41. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the team?
a. It has high density of the order 2.1 to 2.3 gm/cm3
b. It has excellent electrical insulation properties.
c.It has coefficient of friction
d. It is dense & chemically inert
Ans.: b
42. Select the incorrect statement from the following option
a. Thermosets have 3-dimensional, cross linked network structure.
b. Thermosets cannot be remoulded, reused or reclaimed.
c. Thermosets are hard, strong & brittle.
d. Thermosets are soluble in suitable solvent
Ans.: d
43. Which of the following is not an example of thermosets?
a. Epoxy
b. Teflon
c. Vulcanized Rubber
d. Bakelite
Ans.: b
44. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Teflon?
a. It has density of the order 2.1 to 2.3 gm/cm3
b. It has excellent electrical insulation propertiesc. It has high coefficient of friction
d. It is chemically inert
Ans.: b
45. Select the incorrect statement from the following option
a. Condensation polymerization requires two reactive functional groups to be present at both end
of the monomer.
b. No by- product is formed in condensation polymerization.
c. In condensation polymerization, growth of chain occurs at minimum of the two active centers.
d. In condensation Polymerization, Polymer MW rises steadily throughout the reaction.
Ans.: b
46. Which of the following act as initiator in free – Radical polymerization?
a. Grignard Reagent
b. Lewis Acid
c. Benzoyl Peroxide
d. Potassium Amide
Ans.: b
47. Which of the following is a conducting polymer?
a. Polyaniline
b. Polyacetylene
c. Polypyrrole
d. All of the above
Ans.: d
48. The monomer Tetrafluroehylene can be used for the preparation of
a. PMMA
b. Polyurethane
c. Teflon
d. Polyethylene
Ans.: b
49. A lubricant should possess High
a. Volatility
b. Acidity
c. Oiliness
d. None of these
Ans.: b
50. A lubricant is used primarily to prevent
a. Corrosion of metals
b. Oxidation of Metals
c. Wearing out of rubbing metallic Surface d. Reduction of Metals
Ans.: b
51. A suitable lubricant for watches
a. Grease
b. Graphite
c. Hazel Nut oil
d. Palm Oil
Ans.: b
52.A good lubricant should have
a. Low viscosity –Index
b. High viscosity –Index
c. Low fire point
d. High Volatility
Ans.: b
53. Capacity of oil to stick on the surface of machine parts under condition of heavy load is
called
a. Volatility
b. Oilliness
c. acid Value
d. Flash point
Ans.: b
a. Volatility
b. Oilliness
c. acid Value
d. Flash point
Ans.: b
54. In case of liquid lubricant, Generally
a. Flash point is higher than the fire point
b. Fire point is higher than the flash point
c. Fire point is lower than the flash point
d. Flash & fire point are identical
Ans.: b
a. Flash point is higher than the fire point
b. Fire point is higher than the flash point
c. Fire point is lower than the flash point
d. Flash & fire point are identical
Ans.: b
55. When the resistance to movement of sliding/moving parts is only due to internal resistance between the lubricant itself, and lubricant is called
a. Fluid film
b. Boundary
c. Thin Film
d. Extreme pressure
Ans.: a
56. Grease are not used to lubricate
a. Rail axel boxes
b. Gears
c. Bearing working
d. Delicate Instruments
Ans.: d
57. Machines operating under high temperature & load are best lubricated by—
a. Minerals
b. Solid lubricants
c. Grease
d. Animal oil
Ans.: b
58. Single most important property of lubricant oil is
a. Its fire point
b. cloud point
c. oiliness
d. Viscosity Index
Ans.: d
59. Viscosity of oil is measured by using
a. Redwood Viscometer.
b. Ostwalds Viscometer
c.Saybolt Viscometer
d. All of the above
Ans.: d
60. The temperature at which lubricating oil will give off sufficient vapours to form combustible mixture with air is known as
a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. pour point
d. combustion point
Ans.: a
61. The temperature at which lubricating oil will give off sufficient vapours to form combustible mixture with air is known as
a. Flash point
b. fire point
c. pour point
d. combustion point
Ans.: a
62. Which temperature for lubricating oil will be lowest?
a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. Pour point
d. Boiling point
Ans.: b
63. The function of piston ring in internal combustion engine is
a. to prevent lubrication oil from entering the combustion space.
b. To prevent the leakage of combustion chamber products past piston.
c. To transfer heat from piston to cylinder walls.
d. all of the above.
Ans.: d
64. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio?
a. Petrol engine
b. Gas engine
c. Diesel Engine
d. Gas turbine
Ans.: d
65. Thermoplastic materials are those Materials which
a. are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions.
b. are formed into shapes under heat & pressure & results in a permanently hard product.
c. do not become hard with the application of heat & pressure & no chemical change occurs.
d. are used as a friction lining for clutches & brakes.
Ans.: b
66. Example of inorganic thermal insulator is
a.Mineral wood
b. wool
c. rubber
d. none of the above
Ans.: a
67. Example of organic thermal Insulator is
a. Glass wool
b. asbestos
c. Polyurethane foam
d. calcium silicate
Ans.: b
68. Which is the example of natural adhesive?
a. Asphalt
b. Polyvinyl Acetate
c. Epoxy Resin
d. None of the above
Ans.: b
69. Polymer that softens on heating & stiffens on cooling is called
a. Thermoset
b. Thermoplastic
c. Elastomer
d. Rubber
Ans.: b
70. Which of the following may not be used as criteria for classification of polymers?
a. Number of monomers
b. Structure /Shape
c. Thermal behavior
d. None of the above
Ans.: d
71. Polymer with low degree of polymerization is known as
a. High polymer
b. oligomer
c. Macromolecule
d. Copolymer
Ans.: b
72. The compound that can be used as initiator addition polymerization is
a. Potassium dichromate
b. Potassium sulphate
c. benzoyl peroxide
d. Any of the above
Ans.: b
73. Formation of polymers from unsaturated monomers
a. Exothermic process
b. Endothermic Process
c. Depends on the compound used
d. cannot be predicted.
Ans.: a
74. The species responsible for propagation of polymerization reaction of ethylene using benzoyl peroxide as initiator is.
a.cation
b. anion
c. free radical
d. any of the above
Ans.: b
75. An example of chain – growth polymer is
a. Nylon -66
b. Bakelite
c. Terylene
d. Teflon
Ans.: d
76. An example of step growth polymer is
A Teflon
b.PVC
c. Polybutadiene
d. Bakelite
Ans.: d
77. Which of the following polymers is formed by condensation polymerization?
a. Polyethylene terephthalate
b. Polyethylene
c. Polystyrene
d. Polypropylene
Ans.: a
78. Increase in viscosity of the medium is a major disadvantage in –
a. Bulk polymerization
b. solution polymerization
c. suspension polymerization
d. Emulsion polymerization
Ans.: a
79. Which one of the following is a Homopolymer?
a. Buna-S
b. Styrene Acrylonitrile
c. Polyvinyl chloride
d. Buna-N
Ans.: b
80. Which of the following has the largest molecular mass?
a. Monomer
b. Dimer
c. Oligomer
d. Polymer
Ans.: d
81. Chemical resistance of a polymer decreases with
a. Increase in cystallinity
b. Increase in cross Linking
c. increase in molecular mass
d. none of the above
Ans.: d
82. Additives are added to increase the flexibility of a polymer are called
a. Stabilizers
b. Accelerators
c. Plasticizers
d. Fillers
Ans.: b
83. Additives are added to polymer/resins to
a. Improve mechanical properties
b. Impart colour
c. Impart stability to weathering
d. all of the above
Ans.: d
84. The polymer likely to be attacked easily by acids & alkali
a. polypropylene
b. Polystyrene
c. Polyvinyl chloride
d. Polyester
Ans.: a
85. Which of the following polymers are hard?
a. linear
b. Branched
c. Cross-linked
d. Thermoplastic
Ans.: b
86 The polymer used for making gasket & filters in chemical industry is
a. Polytetrafluroethylene
b. Polymethylmethacrylic acid
c. Polyethylene
d. Polystyrene
Ans.: a
87. Polymer used in making laser disks & rear lights in cars is
a. Polytetrafluroethylene
b. Polymethylmethacrylate
c. Polyethylene
d. Polystyrene
Ans.: b
88. Phenol formaldehyde is commercially called as
a. PVC
b. Bakelite
c. Elastomer
d. Nylon
Ans.: b
89. Epoxy Resins are obtained from
a. Bisphenol A & Formaldehyde
b. Phenol & formaldehyde
c. Bisphenol-A & Epichlorohydrin
d. Bisphenol A & alkyl di-isocyanate
Ans.: b
90. Low density polythene is obtained by using
a. anionic catalyst
b. Free radical indicator
c. Ziegler-Natta catalyst
d. Cationic Catalyst
Ans.: b
91. Phenol Formaldehyde is an example of
a. Thermoplastic polymers
b. Thermoplastic polymers
c. Thermite polymers
d. Thermosetting polymers
Ans.: d
92. Which one of the following is thermosetting polymer?
a. PVC
b. Polystyrene
c. Polyethylene
d. Epoxy Resin
Ans.: d
93. The example of thermosetting polymer is
a. PMMA
b. PVA
c. Teflon
d. Urea formaldehyde
Ans.: d
94. Which of the following is used as monomers in polymerization?
a. NH3
b. CH3CH2COOH
c. HOCH2CH2OH
d. All of the above
Ans.: b
Physics Unit 1: Units & Measurements
1) ----- -----Is the branch of science deal with study of matter, energy and their transformation in nature.
(a) physics
(b)chemistry
(c) biology
(d)math
Ans.: a
(a) physics
(b)chemistry
(c) biology
(d)math
Ans.: a
2) -------- is basically a source of communication in engineering and science.
(a)Measurement
(b)accuracy
(c)unit
(d) counting
Ans.: d
3) Necessity of measurement in science--------------------------------
(a)To identify varies laws, To verify varies laws
(b) number, Accuracy
( c) time, mass
(d) measurement, development.
Ans.: b
4) Necessity of measurement in engineering------------------------------
(a) Accurate prediction of physical quantities, Quality assurance of product
(b) Accurate prediction of chemical quantities, Quality assurance of product
(c) Accurate prediction of biological quantities, Quality assurance of product
(d) Accurate prediction of mathematical quantities, Quality assurance of product
Ans.: d
5) The physical quantities which don’t depend on any other quantities for its measurement are called ---
(a)fundamental physical quantities
(b) Derived physical quantities
(c) mathematical quantities
(d) chemical quantities
Ans.: a
6) The physical quantities which depend on any other quantities for their measurement are called -------
(a) fundamental quantities
(b) Derived physical quantities
(c) mathematical quantities
(d) chemical quantities
Ans.: b
7) The unit of fundamental physical quantity is called --------------
(a) fundamental unit
(b) Derived unit
(c) magnitude
(d) quantity
Ans.: a
(a) fundamental unit
(b) Derived unit
(c) magnitude
(d) quantity
Ans.: a
8) The unit of Derived physical quantity is called --------------
(a) Derived unit
(b) fundamental unit
(c) magnitude
(d) quantity
Ans.: a
9) There are -------- fundamental physical quantity
(a)7
(b)6
(c)5
(d)8
Ans.: a
10) Length, mass, time are----------- quantities
(a) fundamental physical quantities
(b) Derived physical quantities
(c) mathematical quantities
(d) chemical quantities
Ans.: a
11) Electric current, thermodynamic temperature, Amount of substance, luminous intensity are----
quantities
(a) fundamental physical quantities
(b) Derived physical quantities
(c) mathematical quantities
(d) chemical quantities
Ans.: a
12). -------------, --------------- are supplementary physical quantity
(a) Plane angle , solid angle
(b)length, time
(c)mass, current
(d) temperature, angle
Ans.: a
13).Unit of Mass in SI system is----------
(a)Kilogram
(b) second
(c) ampere
(d) candela
Ans.: a
14) Unit of Time in SI system is--------------
(a) second
(b) Newton
(c) Joule/s
(d) Kilogram- meter
Ans.: a
15) Unit of Electric current in SI system is-----------
(a)Ampere
(b) Newton
(c) Joule/s
(d) Kilogram- meter
Ans.: a
16) Unit of thermodynamic temperature in SI system is------------
(a)Kelvin
(b) Newton
(c) Joule/s
(d) Kilogram- meter
Ans.: a
17) Unit of Amount of substance in SI system is----------------
(a)Mole
(b) radian
(c) steradian
(d) degree
Ans.: a
18) Unit of luminous intensity in SI system is-----------------
(a)Candela
(b) radian
(c) steradian
(d) degree
Ans.: a
19) Unit of Plane angle in SI system is-------------------
(a)Radian
(b) dyne
(c) steradian
(d) degree
Ans.: a
20) Unit of solid angle in SI system is-------------
(a)Steradian
(b)radian
(c)dyne
(d)degree
Ans.: a
21) Unit of area in SI system is-------------
(a) square meter
(b)meter
(c) ampere
(d) tesla
Ans.: a
22) The parameter used for calculating weight of the man is---------
(a) Length
(b) Mass
(c) Time
(d) None of these
Ans.: b
23) The quantity measured in Kelvin is ------------
(a) length
(b) mass
(c) time
(d) temperature
Ans.: d
24) The unit of acceleration in S.I. is--------
(a) m/s
(b) km/h
(c) m/s2
(d) km/h2
Ans.: b
25) The unit of force in C.G.S.is--------
(a) pound force
(b) Newton
(c) kg force
(d) dyne
Ans.: d
26) Kilogram meter per second square is the unit of ----------
(a) force
(b) pressure
(c) work
(d) velocity
Ans.: a
27) The unit of work is-----------
(a) Newton-meter
(b) Newton
(c) Joule/s
(d) Kilogram- meter
Ans.: b
28) The unit of plane angle is--------
(a) degree celsius
(b) radian
(c) steradian
(d) degree
Ans.: b
29) The length of the table is 3 meter, here 3 is the ----
(a) standard
(b) unit
(c) magnitude
(d) quantity
Ans.: b
30) Out of the following which is not a requirement of standard unit------
(a) is should be same for all quantities
(b) it should be universally accepted
(c) it should be well defined
(d) it should be fixed with time and place
Ans.: a
31) Very small time intervals are accurately measure by
(a) White dwarfs
(b) Quartz clocks
(c) Atomic clocks
(d) Pulsars
Ans.: b
32) The........used for measurement of physical quantity is called unit of that quantity.
(a) Quantity
(b) dimension
(c) time
(d) standard
Ans.: d
33) A quantity which can be measured (computed, quantified or enumerated) is known as......
(a) Fundamental quantity
(b) derived quantity
(c) physical quantity
(d) mechanical quantity
Ans.: b
34) Length of table is 3 meter. In this example, 3 is the ------------ and meter is the -------- of that quantity.
a) Magnitude, standard
b) number, Accuracy
c) standard, Magnitude
d) unit, Magnitude
Ans.: a
35) Any measurement consist of two parts
a) Magnitude, standard
b) number, Accuracy
c) time, mass
d) measurement, development.
Ans.: a
36) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) Mole
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
37) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) Mass
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
38) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) Meter
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
39) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) time
b)watt
c)lumen
d)joule
Ans.: a
40) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) time
b)watt
c)lumen
d)joule
Ans.: a
41) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) kilogram
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
42) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) ampere
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
43) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) Kelvin
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
44) Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?
a) candela
b) watt
c) lumen
d) joule
Ans.: a
45) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) meter
(b) mole
(c) ampere
(d) watt
Ans.: d
46) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) mole
(b) meter
(c) second
(d) lumen
Ans.: d
47) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) kilogram
(b) second
(c) Kelvin
(d)coulomb
Ans.: d
48) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) candela
(d) Henry
Ans.: d
49) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) meter/second
Ans.: d
50) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) Newton
Ans.: d
51) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) ampere/meter
Ans.: d
52) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) meter/second square
Ans.: d
53) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) second
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) kilogram-meter/second
Ans.: d
54) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) candela
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) candela/square meter
Ans.: d
55) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) candela
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) tesla
Ans.: d
56) Which of the following units is a derived unit?
(a) candela
(b) meter
(c) ampere
(d) candela/square meter
Ans.: d
57) Which of the following is not the fundamental quantity ......
(a) length
(b) speed
(c) mass
(d) time
Ans.: b
58) Out of the following the fundamental quantity is.......
(a) Density
(b) pressure
(c) momentum
(d) time
Ans.: d
59) Physical quantity which depends on one or more fundamental quantities for their measurement is called as.......
(a) Fundamental quantity
(b) derived quantity
(c) MKS quantity
(d) CGS quantity
Ans.: b
60) Which of the following is not a fundamental unit?
(a) meter
(b) kilogram
(c) Newton
(d) second
Ans.: b
61) Out of the following the derived unit is....
(a) meter
(b) kilogram
(c) Newton
(d) joule
Ans.: b
62) Pascal is the S.I. unit of.....
(a) force
(b) pressure
(c) density
(d) momentum
Ans.: b
63) The system of units which are in use are......
(a) C.G.S., M.K.S., P.S.T. and S.I.
(b) C.G.S., M.K.S., V.I.T. and S.I.
(c) C.G.S., M.K.S., P.S.T. and F.I.
(d) C.G.S., M.K.S., F.P.S. and S.I.
Ans.: d
64) MKS means......
(a) micro-kg-sec
(b) milli-kilo-s
(c) m-kg-s
(d) micro-kilo-s
Ans.: b
65) In M.K.S. system, the units of length, mass and time are.......
(a) millisecond, kilohertz and second
(b) meter, kilogram and second
(c) millisecond, kilobyte and second
(d) mile, kilogram and second
Ans.: b
66) CGS means
(a) calorie-grade-sec
(b) cm-g-sec
(c) calorie-g-sec
(d) cm-grade-sec
Ans.: b
67) The units of length, mass and time are centimeter, gram and second which are used in the .... system.
(a) C.G.S.
(b) M.K.S.
(c) F.P.S.
(d) S.I.
Ans.: a
68) FPS means.....
(a) ft-lb-s
(b) farad-Pico-s
(c) femto-pound-s
(d) foot Pico-s
Ans.: a
69) 1 gigahertz means.....
(a) 10^6 Hz
(b) 10^3 Hz
(c) 10^12 Hz
(d) 10^9 Hz
Ans.: d
70) 1 millimeter means.......
(a) 10-2m
(b) 10-3m
(c) 10-6m
(d) 10-9m
Ans.: b
71) 10^-6 meter means....
(a) 1mm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 1nm
(d) 1um
Ans.: d
72) 1 nanometer equals to.....
(a) 10^- 9m
(b) 10^- 6m
(c) 10^- 3m
(d) 10^- 1m
Ans.: a
73) The SI unit of intensity is __________
(a) 0c
(b) 0k
(c) 0F
(d) calorie
74) The SI unit of luminous intensity is___________
(a) ampere
(b) flux
(c) candela
(d) Weber
Ans.: b
75) The SI unit of amount substance is____________
(a) Gram
(b) candela
(c) kilogram
(d) mole
Ans.: d
76) The SI unit of solid angle is__________
(a) degree
(b) radian
(c) steradian
(d) degree Celsius
Ans.: b
77) The SI unit of temperature gradient is_________
(a) 0c/m
(b) 0k/m
(c) m/0k
(d) 0c/cm
Ans.: b
78) The unit of area in M.K.S. system is........
(a) hectare
(b) meter square
(c) guntha
(d) square feet
Ans.: b
79) centimeter per second is the unit of speed in.......
(a) S. I. system
(b) F.P.S. system
(c) M.K.S. system
(d) C.G.S. system
Ans.: a
80) The dimensions of a physical quantity are the ... to which fundamental units must be....to obtain the unit of a given Physical quantity
(a) scales calibrated
(b) system, scaled
(c) powers, raised
(d) false
Ans.: b
81) To decide dimensions of a physical quantity, the unit of time is expressed by....
(a) ‘S’
(b) ‘l’
(c) ‘M’
(d) ‘T’
Ans.: d
82) Dimensional formula for ‘area’ is.....
(a) [L²M⁰T ⁰]
(b) [L²M-¹T ⁰]
(c) [L⁰M²T ¹]
(d) [L⁰M⁰T ²]
Ans.: a
83) Dimensional formula for ‘density’ is.....
(a) [L1M-3T 0]
(b) [L-3M1T 0]
(c) [L1M0T 3]
(d) [L3M1T 0]
Ans.: b
84) Out of the following which physical quantity has dimensional formula [L-1M1T
2]?
(a) force
(b) acceleration
(c) velocity
(d) density
Ans.: a
85) The Dimensional formula for velocity is--------
(a) [L1M0T -1]
(b) [L1M2T 1]
(c) [L-1M1T 0]
(d) [L1M1T -1]
Ans.: a
86) In the dimensional equation [La,Mb,Tc]___ [a, b, c,] are called
(a) Dimensional formula
(b) dimensions
(c) basic quantities
(d) derived quantities
Ans.: a
87) [L1M0T -1] are the dimensions of the quantity.....
(a) acceleration
(b) density
(c) speed
(d) area
88) Dimensions of...and are same.
(a) pressure, stress
(b) work, force
(c) velocity, acceleration
(d) Length, mass
Ans.: d
89) Error is .....in a given measurement.
(a) mistake
(b) accuracy
(c) uncertainty
(d) certainty
Ans.: b
90) The difference between true value and measured value is known as.............
(a) error
(b) precision
(c) mistake
(d) accuracy
Ans.: a
91)_______cannot be eliminated but they can be minimized
(a) errors
(b) mistake
(c) accuracy
(d) precision
Ans.: a
92).An error caused due to faulty instrument is called ......
(a)systematic error
(b)random error
(c)personal error
(d)constant error
Ans.: a
93). For less error, measurement is
(a) more accurate
(b)less accurate
(c) constant accurate
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans.: a
94). What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
(a) Decibel
(b) Coulomb
(c) Hume
(d) Cycles
Ans.: a
95). One nanometer is equal to
(a) 10^-6m
(b) 10^-8m
(c) 10^-9m
(d) 10^-5m
Ans.: b
(b) 10^-8m
(c) 10^-9m
(d) 10^-5m
Ans.: b
96). One fathom is equal to
(a) 6 feet
(b) 6 meters
(c) 60 feet
(d) 100 cm
Ans.: a
97). Light year is a measurement of
(a) Speed of airplanes
(b) Speed of light
(c) Stellar distances
(d) Speed of rockets
Ans.: b
98). One kilometer is equal to how many miles?
(a) 0.84
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.6
(d) 0.62
Ans.: d
99). 'Bar' is the unit of
(a) Temperature
(b) Heat
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d)Current
Ans.: b
100) Nautical mile is a unit of distance used in
(a) Navigation
(b) road mile
(c) Astronomy
(d) Measuring the boundaries
Ans.: a
(a) Navigation
(b) road mile
(c) Astronomy
(d) Measuring the boundaries
Ans.: a
101) How many dynes are there in 1 gram weight?
(a) 900
(b) 375
(c) 981
(d) 250
Ans.: b
102) Joule is the unit of
(a) Temperature
(b) pressure
(c) Energy
(d) Heat
Ans.: d
103) How many ergs are in 1 Joule
(a) 10^2
(b) 10^4
(c) 10^6
(d) 10^7
Ans.: d
104). Very small time intervals are accurately measure by
(a) White dwarfs
(b) Quartz clocks
(c) Atomic clocks
(d) Pulsars
Ans.: b
105). Electric current is measure by
(a) Commentator
(b) Anemometer
(c) Ammeter
(d) Voltmeter
Ans.: b
106). One horse power is equal to
(a) 746 watts
(b) 748 watts
(c) 756 watts
(d) 736 watts
Ans.: a
107). Kilowatt is a unit to measure
(a) Work
(b) Power
(c) Electricity
(d) Current
Ans.: b
108). Kilohertz is a unit which measures
(a) Power used by a current of one ampere
(b) Electromagnetic radio wave frequencies
(c) Voltage
(d) Electric resistance
Ans.: b
(c) Voltage
(d) Electric resistance
Ans.: b
109). One Joule is equal to
(a) 10^2 ergs
(b) 10^4 ergs
(c) 10^6 ergs
(d) 10^7 ergs
Ans.: d
110). Fathom is the unit of
(a) sound
(b)Depth
(c) Frequency
(d)Distance
Ans.: b
111) Light year is a unit of
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) sunlight intensity
(d) mass
Ans.: b
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) sunlight intensity
(d) mass
Ans.: b
112). The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is
(a) [MLT]
(b) [ML²T -1 ]
(c) [M² L ²T -1 ]
(d) [ML1 T -1 ]
Ans.: b
113). The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. In MKS system its value is
(a) 70 N/m
(b) 7 ✕ 10-2 N/m
(c) 7 ✕ 102 N/m
(d) 7 ✕ 103 N/m
Ans.: b
114). The dimensions of Kinetic energy is same as that of
(a) Force
(b) Pressure
(c) Work
(d) Momentum
Ans.: b
115). At 4° C, the density of water is equal to
(a) 10-³ kg m³
(b) 10-² kg m³
(c) 10 kg m³
(d) 10³ kg m³
Ans.: d
116). One watt hour contains how many joules?
(a) 3.6 ✕ 10⁸ J
(b) 3.6 ✕ 10² J
(c) 3.6 ✕ 10³ J
(d) 10-³ J
Ans.: b
117). Which of the following pairs has the same dimensions?
(a) Specific Heat and Latent Heat
(b) Impulse and Momentum
(c) Surface Tension and Force
(d) Moment of Inertia and Torque
Ans.: b
118). Electron volt is a unit of
(a) Charge
(b) Potential difference
(c) Energy
(d) Magnetic Force
Ans.: b
119). There are 20 divisions in 4 cm of the main scale. The vernire scale has 10 divisions. The least count of the instrument is
(a) 0.05 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c) 5.0 cm
(d) 0.005 cm.
Ans.: d
120). [ML-1 T -2 ] is the dimensional formula of
(a) force
(b) coefficient of friction
(c) modulus of elasticity
(d) energy
Ans.: b
121) The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is
(a) [MLT-1 ]
(b) [M-1 L 2 T -2 ]
(c) [ML-1 T -1 ]
(d) none of these
Ans.: d
122). On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found, is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans.: b
123). If v stands for velocity of sound, E is elasticity and d the density, then find x in the equation
v = (d/E)x
(a) 1
(b) ½
(c) 2
(d) -1/2
Ans.: d
124). The multiplication of 10.610 with 0.210 up to correct number of significant figure is
(a) 2.2281
(b) 2.228
(c) 2.22
(d) 2.2
Ans.: b
125). The S.I. unit of universal gas constant is
(a) Watt K-1mol-1
(b) N K-1mol-1
(c) JK-1mol-1
(d) erg K-1mol-1
Ans.: b
126). Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity is
(a) ML2 T -3 θ -1
(b) ML2 T -2 θ -4
(c) ML2 T -2 θ -1
(d) MLT -3 θ -1
127). Three measurements 7.1J, 7.2J and 6.7J are made as experiment the result with correct number of significant figures is
(a) 7.1 J
(b) 7.06 J
(c) 7.0 J
(d) 7J
Ans.: d
128). Substances which larger masses are usually measured in
(a) Kilograms
(b) grams
(c) tones
(d) metric tones
Ans.: d
129). An instrument which gives a level of high accuracy than mechanical watch is
(a) electronic stopwatch
(b)stop clock
(c)pendulum clock
(d)hour glass
Ans.: a
130). In SI system unit of area is
(a) meter
(b)square
(c) meter square
(d)meter cube
Ans.: b
131). A single system on which all scientists all over the world agree for units of measurement is called
(a) SI units
(b) International System of units
(c) both a and b
(d) universal system
Ans.: b
132). Electronic stop watch gives a display of digital reading along with accuracy up to
(a) 0.01s
(b) 0.1s
(c) 0.10s
(d) 1s
Ans.: a
(a) 0.01s
(b) 0.1s
(c) 0.10s
(d) 1s
Ans.: a
133).An average speed of an aero plane is equal to
(a)300m/s
(b)100m/s
(c)500m/s
(d)50m/s
(a)300m/s
(b)100m/s
(c)500m/s
(d)50m/s
134). Unit of Force is Newton and its symbol is
(a)N
(b) F
(c) A
(d)G
Ans.: a
135). If symbol of unit is a capital letter still its unit name will start from
(a) small case letter
(b)capital letter
(c) italic letter
(d) bold letters
Ans.: a
136).To change SI units by ten into smaller or bigger units they uses
(a) prefixes
(b) suffixes
(c) symbols
(d) ratios
Ans.: a
137). Mercury thermometer is used to measure exact
(a) time
(b) length
(c) temperature
(d) pressure
Ans.: b
138). First made instrument by Egyptians in year 800 BC for measuring time was
(a) sundial
(b) compass
(c) stop watch
(d) pendulum clock
Ans.: a
139). In SI system unit for speed is written as
(a) meter
(b) meter/sec
(c) meter/hour
(d) km/sec
Ans.: b
140). In science objective and precise observations are mostly used which are
(a) qualitative
(b) quantitative
(c) both a and b
(d) respective
Ans.: b
141).Most common used instrument to measure length in laboratory is a
(a) meter ruler
(b) half meter ruler
(c) both a and b
(d) vernier caliper
Ans.: a
142). Higher speed is seen in an
(a) faster moving object
(b) slower moving object
(c) constant moving object
(d) still object
Ans.: a
143). An average speed is equal to total distance which is travelled divided by
(a) taken time
(b) speed limit
(c) direction
(d) area
Ans.: a
144). Types of balance includes
(a) beam balance
(b) electronic balance
(c) both a and b
(d) natural balance
Ans.: b
145). In old days methods of measuring were
(a) Ianaccurate
(b) correct
(c) accurate
(d) perfect
Ans.: b
146). In our everyday life activities, we need
(a) estimations
(b) accurate measurements
(c) both a and b
(d) appearances
Ans.: b
147). For very short intervals we mostly use
(a) stop clocks
(b) stop watches
(c) both a and b
(d) wall clocks
147). For very short intervals we mostly use
(a) stop clocks
(b) stop watches
(c) both a and b
(d) wall clocks
Ans.: b
148). Apparatus commonly used to measure volume of liquids is
(a) measuring cylinder
(b) measuring tapes
(c) jar
(d) cylinder
Ans.: a
149).Standard meter is defined as distance which is travelled by light in 1/299792458 of a second through
(a)vacuum
(b) space
(c) air
(d) water
Ans.: a
150). Hour glass was used in past days to know
(a) time
(b) length
(c) mass
(d) volume
Ans.: a
151). Sonya is tall is observation which is
(a) qualitative
(b) quantitative
(c) both a and b
(d) respective
Ans.: a
152). Length of distance which is covered in specific time is called
(a) distance
(b) displacement
(c) speed
(d) force
Ans.: b
153). Special feature of a Vernier caliper is that it can measure up to
(a) 0.1mm
(b) 1mm
(c) 2mm
(d) 0.10mm
Ans.: a
154). Sum of amount of matter in a substance is called its
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) length
(d) volume
Ans.: a
155). Amount of 1 liter contains
(a) 100ml
(b) 1000ml
(c) 10mm
(d) 10kg
Ans.: b
158). 10,000 m/sec is speed of a
(a) aeroplane
(b) rocket
(c) satellite signal
(d) car
Ans.: b
159).Kilo means in SI is one
(a) thousand
(b) hundred
(c) ten
(d) million
Ans.: a
160) The errors due to sudden change in experimental conditions are called
(a) instrumental errors
(b) systematic errors
(c) random errors
(d) force errors
Ans.: b
161). Smallest division which is found in a measuring tape is
(a) 1mm
(b) 10mm
(c) 5mm
(d) 0mm
Ans.: a
162). To measure shorter distances or lengths one can use
(a) meter ruler
(b) half meter ruler
(c) both a and b
(d) Vernier caliper
Ans.: a
163). Km are used to measure
(a) shorter distance
(b) longer distances
(c) toys
(d) bottles
Ans.: b
164). In equation form speed is written as
(a) time=distance/speed
(b) distance=speed*time
(c) speed=distance travelled/time taken
(d) all of them
Ans.: b
(c) speed=distance travelled/time taken
(d) all of them
Ans.: b
165). Metric system is a system which is standard of
(a) measurement
(b) living things
(c) experimenting
(d) analysis
Ans.: a
166). Instrument which can be used to measure length includes
(a) measuring tapes
(b) meter ruler
(c) Vernier caliper
(d) all of them
Ans.: d
167). Vernier caliper helps in measuring
(a) external diameter
(b) internal diameter
(c) thickness and depth of narrow tubes
(d) all of them
Ans.: d
168). Error which is most common in measurements is due to wrong placement of eye while taking readings is called
(a) parallax error
(b) eye error
(c) common error
(d) free error
Ans.: a
169). Volume of liquids can be measured by using different instruments which includes
(a) cylinders
(b) volumetric flasks
(c) burettes or pipettes
(d) all of them
Ans.: a
170). Road signs like 50 km/h are warning to drive in given
(a) area
(b) speed limit
(c) direction
(d) distance
Ans.: b
171). In SI system unit of volume is
(a) meter square
(b) cubic meter
(c) meter
(d) kilometers
Ans.: b
172). To measure shorter lengths with their accurate reading we use
(a) measuring tapes
(b) meter ruler
(c) Vernier caliper
(d) all of them
Ans.: b
173). Kilogram standard is kept in France which is a metal cylinder made of
(a) platinum
(b) iridium
(c) both a and b
(d) iron
Ans.: b
174). To measure mass instrument used is a
(a) balance
(b) cylinder
(c) weight machine
(d) flask
Ans.: a
175). Distances up to several hundred meters are measured by help of a
(a) measuring tapes
(b) meter ruler
(c) Vernier caliper
(d) all of them
Ans.: a
176). 0.1mm is accuracy of a
(a) measuring tapes
(b) meter ruler
(c) Vernier caliper
(d) both a and b
Ans.: b
177). In physics, a common instrument to measure diameter of a circle is known as
(a) Rule
(b) measuring tape
(c) calipers
(d) inch tape
Ans.: b
178). A physical quantity consists of a
(a) Analogical Magnitude
(b) Numerical magnitude
(c) Alphabetical Magnitude
(d) Symbolic Magnitude
Ans.: b
179). Range of Vernier calipers is
(a) 1 cm to 10 cm
(b) 1 cm to 5cm
(c) 1 cm to 6 cm
(d) 1 cm to 20 cm
Ans.: d
180). Precision of micrometer screw gauge is
(a) 0.1 cm
(b) 0.01 mm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.01 m
Ans.: b
181). Range of measuring tape is
(a) 1 meter
(b) several meters
(c) two meters
(d) half meter
Ans.: b
182). Precision of Vernier calipers is
(a) 1 mm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 0.1 mm
(d) 0.1 cm
Ans.: b
183). Minimum length an instrument can measure is called its
(a) accuracy
(b) estimate
(c) precision
(d) limitations
Ans.: b
184). SI unit for length is
(a) centimeter
(b) inches
(c) meter
(d) yards
Ans.: b
185). One oscillation completes when bob moves from
(a) A to B
(b) A to B and then again
(c) A to B and then back to A
(d) A to B and then in center
Ans.: d
186). Quantities other than base quantities are termed as
(a) Derived quantities
(b) Base quantities
(c) Professional quantities
(d) Energetic quantities
Ans.: a
187). The reference standard used for the measurement of a physical quantity is called _______.
(a) standard quantity
(b) dimension
(c) constant
(d) unit
Ans.: d
188). Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good unit?
(a) It is invariable.
(b) It is reproducible.
(c) It is perishable.
(d) It is easily available.
Ans.: b
189). Units are classified into ______ groups.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans.: a
190). A set of fundamental and derived units is known as _______.
(a) supplementary units
(b) system of units
(c) complementary units
(d) metric units
Ans.: b
191). The physical quantity having the same unit in all the systems of unit is _______.
(a) length
(b) time
(c) mass
(d) foot
Ans.: b
192). S.I system of unit contains _______ supplementary unit.
(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) many
(d) 4
Ans.: b
193). In which of following system, scientific data can be exchanged between different parts of the world?
(a) M.K.S.
(b) C.G.S.
(c) F.P.S.
(d) S.I.
Ans.: d
194). Out of the following units, which is NOT a fundamental unit?
(a) newton
(b) second
(c) pound
(d) kg
Ans.: a
195). Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of
(a) length and mass
(b) mass and time
(c) length, mass and time
(d) none of these
Ans.: b
196). Which of the following is NOT a derived unit?
(a) joule
(b) erg
(c) dyne
(d) mole
Ans.: d
197). Which of the following is the CORRECT way of writing units?
(a) 25 ms length
(b) 30 Kg
(c) 5 Newton
(d) 10 N
Ans.: d
198). To measure the distance of a planet from the earth ______ method is used.
(a) echo
(b) direct
(c) parallax
(d) paradox
Ans.: b
199). The mass of the body depends only on
(a) temperature.
(b) pressure.
(c) quantity of matter contained in the body. (d) location of the body from the observer.
Ans.: b
200) Which of the physical quantity remains same for all unit system ?
(a) meter
(b) second
(c) ampere
(d) kilogram
201) Which type of errors cannot be controlled?
(a) Random errors
(b) Experimental errors
(c) Instrumental errors
(d) Systematic errors
Ans.: a
202) How to minimize the errors in the measurement ?
(a) Taking a large magnitude of the quantity to be measured
(b) taking large number of readings and find its mean value
(c) Using an instrument whose least count is small
(d) All of the above
203) The ratio of mean absolute error in the measurement of physical quantity to mean value is called
(a) absolute error
(b) relative error
(c) random error
(d) experimental error
Ans.: b
204) A figure which is of some significance but it does not necessarily denote a certainly is called
(a) significant figure
(b) basic figure
(c) numbering figure
(d) decimal figure
Ans.: a
205) The mass and volume of a plate are 4.237 kg and 2.51 m³ respectively. Find density of plate in S.F.
(a) 1.688kg/m³
(b) 1.69kg/ m³
(c) 1.6880 kg/ m³
(d) 1.6890 kg/ m³
Ans.: a
206) Which of the following is unit of length
(a) lunar month
(b) kelvin
(c) candela
(d) light year
Ans.: d
207) Systametic error occured due to poor calibration of instrument that can be corrected by
(a) taking several readings
(b) replacing instruments
(c) taking mean values
(d) taking median of values
Ans.: b
208) Error that occurs due to equally affected measurement is called
(a) random error
(b) systematic error
(c) frequent error
(d) precision
Ans.: b
209) The percentage error in the distance 100 +5 cm is
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) 20%
Ans.: a
210) In an experiment to determine the density of a cube, the percentage error in the measurement of mass is 0.25% and the percentage error in the measurement of length is 0.50 % what will be the percentage error in the determination of its density ?
(a) 2.75%
(b) 1.75%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1.25%
Ans.: b
211) Which of the following numerical value have significant figure 4 ?
(a) 1.011
(b) 0.010
(c) 0.001
(d) 0.100
Ans.: a
212) What is the number of significant figures in 5.50 x 10°
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans.: d
213) The area of a rectangle of size 1.25cm x 2.245 cm in significant figure is
(a) 2.80625 cm²
(b) 2.81 cm²
(c) 2.806 cm²
(d) 2.8062 cm²
Ans.: b
214)The significant figures in 500.5000 are
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans.: b
215) Addition of measurement 15.225 cm, 7.21 cm and 3.0 cm in significant figure is
(a) 25.43 cm
(b) 25.4 cm
(c) 25.435 cm
(d) 25.4350 cm
Ans.: d
216) The measured value of a resistance is 10.25 ohm, whereas its value of 10.22 ohm. What is absolute error of the measurement?
(a)0.01 ohm.
(b) 0.03 ohm.
(c)15.36 ohm.
(d) 10.26 ohm.
Ans.: b
217)The multiplication of 10.610 with 0.210 upto correct number of significant figure is
(a) 2.2281
(b) 2.228
(c)2.22
(d) 2.2
Ans.: a
218)The ratio of average absolute error to mean reading is called___
a)Average absolute error
b)Absolute error
c)Relative error
d)Average Relative error
Ans.: b
219) Same person may get different readings because of human limitations,this comes under,
a)Instrumental error
b)Constant error
c)Random error
d)Personal error
Ans.: d
220)Out of the following ,the most accurate instrument is,
a)Measuring tape
b)Meter scale
c)Vernier caliper
d)Micrometer screw gauge
Ans.: d
221)A significant figure is defined as a figure in any place which is reasonably____
a)Non considerable
b)Meaninigless
c)Not important
d)Meaningful
222) A figure which has some significance but it does not necessarily denote a certainty is called,
a)Significant figure
b)Basic figure
c)Numbering figure
d)Decimal figure
Ans.: a
223)The digits 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 are ___
a)Not significant
b)Sometimes Significant
c)Always significant
d)All of the above
Ans.: b
224) If distance between Mumbai to Pune by train is 90.5km,in this, zero is______
a)Not significant
b)Significant
c)May be significant
d)May not be significant
Ans.: b
225) The number of significant figure in measurement of 2.34 X 10^11
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
Ans.: b
226) 200µF is equal to______.
a)200X10^-9 F
b)200X10^6 F
c)200X10^-6 F
d)200X10^9 F
Ans.: b
a)200X10^-9 F
b)200X10^6 F
c)200X10^-6 F
d)200X10^9 F
Ans.: b
227) 2000pF is equal to______.
a)2000X10^6 F
b)2000X10^-6 F
c)2000X10^9 F
d)2000X10^-12F
Ans.: d
228) Length of the table is 3 m. Convert this into mm
a)3×10-² mm
b)3×10² mm
c)3×10³ mm
d)3×10-³ mm
Ans.: b
229) 220cm is equal to ………..
a)220×10-² m
b)220×10² m
c)220×10-³ m
d)220×10³ m
Ans:. a
230) 10^-6 meter means
a)1mm
b)1cm
c)1nm
d)1µm
Ans.: d
Unit 2 : Electricity,Magnetism & Semiconductors
1) The electricity developed on a body,when it is rubbed on other body is called as,a) Current electricity
b) Magnetic electricity
c) Frictional electricity
d) Static electricity
Ans.: c
2) In an neutral atom number of electrons are,
a) Same as protons
b) less than protons
c) More than protons
d) None of these
Ans.: a
3) The principle of conservation of charges state that, the total charges on isolated system remains,
a) constant
b) variable
c) Small
d) Large
Ans.: a
4) The surplus or lack of an electron in a body gives the concept of ,
a) Capacitance
b) Coulomb
c) Charge
d) Neutrons
Ans.: c
5) The types of electric charges are,
a) Small & High
b) Positive & Negative
c) Nano & Milli
d) None of these
Ans.: b
6) The force of attraction or repulsion between two electric charges is known as,
a) Magnetic force
b) Mechanical force
c) Electrostatic force
d) Frictional force
Ans.: c
7) Which of the following is a correct statement?
a) Like charges attract and unlike charges repel
b) Like as well as unlike charges attract each other
c) Unlike charges attract each other and like charges repel each other
d) Like as well as unlike charges repel each other
Ans.: c
8) If two equal strength charges are placed in air……… … apart from each other and if they exert a force of ……… on each other, then each charge is said to be a unit charge or charge of 1 coulomb.
a) 9×10⁹ m, 1N
b) 9×10-⁹ m, 1N
c) 1m, 9× 10⁹
d) 1m, 9× 10-⁹
Ans.: a
9) As distance between two electric charges decreases, the electrostatic force between them,
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Reduces
Ans.: b
10) Coulomb’s inverse square law states that the force of attraction or repulsion between the two charges in a given medium is __proportional to product of strengths of two charges and__proportional to square of distance between them.
a) Inversely, Directly
b) Directly,Directly
c) Inversely, Inversely
d) Directly,Inversely
Ans.: d
11) The unit of electric charge is,
a) Weber
b) Joule
c) Ampere
d) Coulomb
Ans.: d
12) If two equal strength charges are placed in air one meter apart from each other and if they exert a force of 9×10-⁹ on each other, then each charge is said to be a charge of
a) Nine coulomb
b) Nine Newton
c) One Coulomb
d) One Newton
Ans.: c
13) Dielectric constant of a medium w.r.t.vaccum is the
a) ratio of permittivity of vaccum to permittivity of medium
b) ratio of permittivity of medium to permittivity of vaccum
c) product of permittivity of vaccum to permittivity of medium
d) None of these
14) The ratio of permittivity of medium to permittivity of vaccum is called as
a) Coulomb’s constant
b) Magnetic Constant
c) Dielectric constant
d) Newton’s constsnt
15) Materials which doesn’t allow current to flow through them but show electrical effects are called as
a) Dielectrics
b) Electrics
c) Conductor
d) Permittivities
16) The value of dielectric constant for air is,
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
17) The value of dielectric constant of a medium other than air is
a) less than 1
b) 0
c) 1
d) greater than 1
18) The value of dielectric constant of a metal is,
a) 0
b) 1
c) greater than 1
d) Infinity
19) The space around an electric charge in which force of attraction or repulsion is effective is known as,
a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
c) Gravitational field
d) None of these
20) The intensity of electric field at appoint due to a point charge is defined as,
a) Charge per unit electrostatic force
b) Product of charge & electrostatic force
c) Charge per unit electric field
c) Charge per unit electric field
d) electrostatic force acting on unit positive charge at that point
21) The unit of Electric field intensity is,
a) C/N
b) N/C
c) NC
d) ohm/m
22) Electric field intensity of a charge depends on,
a) Medium in which charge is placed
b) Nature of charge
c) Strength of electric field
d) None of these
c) Strength of electric field
d) None of these
23) Electric intensity…………
i) Is not same at all the points inside the electric field
ii) Is maximum near the charge
iii) Depends upon strength of charge
a) Only statement (i) is correct
b) Only statement (ii) is correct
c) Only statement (iii) is correct
d) All statements are correct
24) Electric potential is…………..
a) Work done per unit charge
b) Charge per unit work
c) Force per unit charge
d) Charge per unit force
25) Unit of electric flux is,
a) Coulomb
b) Ampere
c) Ohm
d) Newton
26) Electric current is defined as the …………
a) Product of electric charge and time
b) Force per unit positive charge
c) Time per unit electric charge
c) Time per unit electric charge
d) Electric charge per unit time
27) Current 1A is given by…………
a) 1A =
b) 1A =
c) 1A = 1C ×1s
d) None of these
28) The resistance of a conductor at constant temperature depends on …..
a) Length
b) Cross-sectional area
c) Material of conductor
d) All of the above
1q
29) The unit of specific resistance is…….
a) Ohm/metre
b) Ohm-metre
c) Ohm/ampere
d) Ohm- ampere
29) The unit of specific resistance is…….
a) Ohm/metre
b) Ohm-metre
c) Ohm/ampere
d) Ohm- ampere
30) Conductance is a reciprocal of ………and conductivity is reciprocal of…..this statement is………
a) Resistance , resistivity
b) Resistivity, Resistance
c) Current, potential
d) None of these
31) Ohm’s law is valid when temperature of a conductor is………….
a) not constant
b) constant
c) changing
d) none of these
32) Two like charges of 20µC are placed 5cm apart in a medium of dielectric constant 2.5 Calculate force between them
a) 288N
b) 144N
c) 576N
d) 1152N
33) Calculate the potential at a point 10 cm away from a point charge +1C in air
a) 90 × 10⁹ volts
b) 9× 10⁹ volts
c) 900× 10⁹ volts
d) None of these
34) Electric potential is given by relation,
a) W/Q
b) Q/W
c) WXQ
d) N/C
35) The SI unit of electric potential is ,
a) Ampere
b) coulomb
c) Volt
d) Volt/m
36) 1V means,
a) 1N/1m
b) 1C X 1J
c) 1C / 1J
d) n1J/1
37) Absolute Potential at a point at a distance x from Q is given by,
a) x /kQ
b) Q/kx
c) k/xQ
d) Qx/k
38) The rate of flow of electric charge is called as
a) Potential
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Charge
39) The unit of Current is,
a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Ohm
d) Coulomb
40) The resistance of a Conductor is directly proportional to,
a) Length
b) Area
c) Volume
d) Distance
41) The resistance of a Conductor is inversely proportional to,
a) Length
b) Area
c) Volume
d) Distance
42) The ratio of potential difference to electric current is called as,
a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Conductivity
d) Resistivity
43) The property of a conductor to oppose the flow of electric current is called as,
a) Conductance
b) Conductivity
c) resistance
d) Insulation
44) The resistance of wire ____________ with increase in length of wire.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None of these
45) The conductivity of wire ____________ with increase in length of wire.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None of these
46) The resistance of conductor ____________ with increase in area of cross section of conductor.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) may increase
47) The conductivity of wire ____________ with increase in area of cross section of conductor.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) may increase
48) The resistance of material of unit length and unit cross section area of cross section is called as
a) Conductivity
b) Resistivity
c) Conductance
d) Total Resistance
49) Simen per meter is the unit of
a) Resistivity
b) Specific resistance
c) conductivity
d) Conductance
50) Low resistance means ________and high resistance means________
a) Bad conductor,good conductor
b) Insulator, Bad conductor
c) Good conductor,Bad conductor
d) Insulator,Good conductor
51) Specific resistance is given by the formula
a) =RA/L
b) =RL/A
c) =AL/R
d) =A/LR
52) Ohm’s equation is,
a) I=R/V
b) I=VR
c) R=VI
d) R= V/I
53) When number of resistances are connected in series then effective resistance____
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None of these
54) When number of resistances are connected in parallel then effective resistance____
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None of these
55) The series combination of resistances is used to__________resistance in circuit.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Reduces slightly
d) keep constant
56) The parallel combination of resistances is used to__________resistance in circuit.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) make zero
d) keep constant
57) Resistances connected in series __________current in circuit.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Multiply
d) keep constant
58) Resistances connected in parallel __________current in circuit.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Make zero
d) keep constant
59) When number are resistances are connected in series____
a) Current through each resistance is same b) Current across each resistance is different
c) Potential across each resistance is same d) Potential & current both remains same
60) When number are resistances are connected in series____
a) Current through each resistance is same b) Potential across each resistance is different
c) Potential across each resistance is same d) Potential & current both remains same
61) Requivalent= R1+ R2 + R3+…….Rn ,gives the value of equivalent resistance when number of resistances are connected in ______
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series & Parallel combination
d) None of these
62.1/requivalent = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 +.......1/Rn
gives the value of equivalent resistance when number of resistances are connected in ______
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series & Parallel combination
d) None of these
63) A battery of emf 6V is connected across a resistance of 12Ω , calculate the current flowing
through the resistance.
a) 72 A
b) 0.5A
c) 0.2 A
d) 2A
64) A current of 0.8A flows through a resistance of 30 Ω. Calculate voltage across it.
a) 2.4V
b) 24V
c) 240V
d) 32V
65) A current of 1.2A flows through a resistance if a battery of emf 8V is connected across it Calculate the resistance.
a) 9.6 Ω
b) 6.67 Ω
c) 1.5 Ω
d) 5.5 Ω
66) When two resistances are connected in series their effective resistance is 100 Ω,but when they are connected in parallel, the effective resistance becomes 24 Ω..Calculate the two resistances.
a) 40 Ω,60 Ω
b) 30 Ω,70 Ω
c) 20 Ω,80 Ω
d) 70 Ω,30 Ω
67) The production of heat energy in a conductor because of flow of electric current through it is called____
a) Heating effect of electric current b) Magnetic effect of electric current
c) Conducting effect of electric current d) None of these
68) Heat generated in a conductor carrying current depends on_____
a) Current
b) Resistance of conductor
c) Time
d) All of these
69) The mechanical equivalent of heat(J) =_______
a) 4.2J/Cal
b) 4.2J/kcal
c) 4200J/cal
d) 420J/cal
70) As per Joule’s law,the valid equation is,
a) H=IR2t/J
b) H=I2Rt/J
c) H=I2RJ/t
d) H=I2Jt/R
71) Artificial magnets are _________than natural magnets.
a) Weaker
b) Stronger
c) less strong
d) None of these
72) Which of the following is not a property of Bar magnet?
a) It attracts Iorn,nickel & steel
b) It always rests in North South direction
c) Like poles repel each other & unlike poles attract each other
d) UnLike poles repel each other & like poles attract each other
73) Magnetic intensity is a,
a) Scalar quality
b) Vector Quantity
c) Fundamental quantity
d) None of these
74) The region around the magnet where the magnetic force of attraction or repulsion is present is known as,
a) Electic field
b) Magnetic field
c) Electromagnetic field
d) None of these
75) The SI unit of Magnetic field is,
a) Ampere
b) Tesla
c) Ampere/m
d) Newton
76) The CGS unit of magnetic field intensity is,
a) Volt
b) Tesla
c) Weber
d) Gauss
77) Intensity of magnetic field at a point is defined as force experienced by______kept at that point.
a) North pole
b) South pole
c) Center of pole
d) magnet
78) Magnetic lines of force move from_________inside a bar magnet
a) North pole to South pole
b) South Pole to North Pole
c) East to west
d) West to east
79) Magnetic lines of force _______intersect each other.
a) Sometimes
b) Always
c) Never
d) Rarely
80) Electric lines of force _______intersect each other.
a) Sometimes
b) Always
c) Never
d) Rarely
81) Magnetic Lines of force has a tendency to contract along the,
a) Length
b) Side
c) Area
d) Volume
82) Magnetic line of force expand ____
a) Longitudinally
b) Laterally
c) Area
d) Volume
83) The lines of force of uniform magnetic field are _________
a) Circular
b) Curved
c) Elliptical
d) Parallel
84) The lines of force of non-uniform magnetic field are _________
a) Circular
b) Curved
c) Elliptical
d) Parallel
85) The magnetic lines of force are not affected by________material
a) Magnetic
b) Non-Magnetic
c) Semi-magnetic
d) both a & c
86) The magnetic lines of force are crowded in region where the msgnetic field is______
a) Zero
b) Small
c) Large
d) Absent
87) The SI unit of Magnetic flux is,
a) Pascal
b) Tesla
c) Weber
d) Newton
88) The CGS unit of magnetic flux is,
a) Pascal
b) Tesla
c) Weber
d) Maxwell
89) 1 Weber=_____Maxwell
a) 10^- 6
b) 10^6
c) 10^8
d) 10^- 8
90) Magnetic flux density(B) is ______ proportional to magnetic field intensity(H)
a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Not
d) None of these
91) Which of the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force?
a) They start from north pole and end to south pole outside the magnet
b) They never Intersect each other
c) Magnetic lines of force are not affected by Non-magnetic material
d) Magnetic lines of force form a close loop
92) Force between two charges separated by a certain distance in air is F.If each charge is doubled & distance between them is doubled ,then force will be,
a) F/2
b) F
c) 2F
d) 4F
93) Force between two charges separated by a certain distance in air is F.If distance between them is
doubled , then force will be,
a) F
b) 2F
c) 4F
d) F/4
c) 4F
d) F/4
94 ) An electron is placed in an electric field of intensity 1000N/C. Calculate the force acting on electron.
a) 1.6 X 10^- 19 N
b) 1.6 X10^-16 N
c) 1.6X10^-22 N
d) 0.65X 10^22 N
95) A force of 4.5N acts on a charge of 7.5X10-4C.Calculate the intensity of electric field at that point
a) 3000N/C
b) 33.75 X10 ^-4N/C
c) 1.66X 10^- 4N/C
d) 6000N/C
96) If the distance from a charge is halved then the potential at the point becomes,
a) Same
b) 4 times
c) Half
d) double
97) Calculate the intensity of electric field at a point 25cm from a charge of 4.8Microcoulmb in a medium
of dielectric constant 3.6
a) 19.2X 103N/C
b) 192 X104N/C
c) 192 X103N/C
d) 19.2X 103N/C
98) Calculate specific resistance of material of a cable 15m long having resistance of 2Ω & area 2X10-6m.
a) 0.266X 10-7 Ωm
b) 2.66X 10-6 Ωm
c) 0.266X 10-6 Ωm
d) 26.6X 10-7 Ωm
99) A wire of resistance R is divided into 2 equal parts & these two wires are connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance will be,
a) 4R
b) R/4
c) R/2
d) 2R
100) The length and cross sectional area of a wire is halved .Its resistance will be______
a) Halved
b) Doubled
c) Unchanged
d) Four times
101) To obtain maximum resistance, the given resistors should be connected in ______
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Combination of series & Parallel
d) None of these
102) If three resistances of 1Ω,10Ω and 100Ω are connected in parallel then the equivalent resistance
will be___________
a) Greater than 100 Ω
b) Less than 1 Ω
c) Between 1 Ω & 100 Ω
d) None of these
will be___________
a) Greater than 100 Ω
b) Less than 1 Ω
c) Between 1 Ω & 100 Ω
d) None of these
103) If four resistances of 2 Ω connected in parallel then what will be the equivalent resistance of the
combination?
a) 1/4
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1/2
104) If four resistances of 1 Ω are connected in parallel and 1 Ω is connected in series with combination
then what will be the effective resistance?
a) 5 Ω
b) 0.25 Ω
c) 1.25 Ω
d) 2.5 Ω
105) If length and cross sectional area of wire is doubled its resistance will be,
a) Unchanged
b) Halved
c) Doubled
d) Four times
106) When two resistances are connected in series their effective resistance is 4 Ω but when they are
connected in parallel resistance becomes 1 Ω..Calculate two resistances.
a) 1 Ω &3 Ω
b) 3 Ω & 3 Ω
c) 2 Ω & 2 Ω
d) None of these
107) An electric iron of 100 Ω generates 378kcal heat in 30minutes. What is the voltage of the main?(J=4200J/kcal)
a) 296.98 V
b) 286.98V
c) 396.9V
d) 386.9V
108) The _____of energies possessed by______is known as Valence band.
a) Amount, electrons
b) range,atoms
c) Value,atoms
d) range,Valence electrons
109) The energy gap between Valence Band and Conduction band is called as_____
a) Valence band
b) Forbidden gap
c) Conduction band
d) Insulation gap
110) The _____of energies possessed by______is known as Conduction band.
a) Amount, electrons
b) range,atoms
c) Value,atoms
d) range,conducting electrons
111) The materials whose conductivity is less than conductors and more than insulators are called as,
a) Conductor
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Superconductors
112) Conductors are the material with______conductivity.
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) No
113) Semiconductors are the materials having conductivity___________
a) Less than Insulator
b) Less than conductor & Insulator
c) Less than conductor & More than insulator
d) None of these
114) The material which allows flow of heat as well as electricity is called as_________
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Super conductors
115) The electrical conductivity of the conductors is________
a) Zero
b) Low
c) High
d) few
116) Good conductors of electricity consists of,
a) Large number of free electrons
b) Few number of free electrons
c) no free electrons
d) None of these
117) Which of the following is not an example of good conductor ?
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Mica
d) Brass
118) Out of the following ,semiconductor material is ______
a) Steel
b) Brass
c) Germanium
d) Copper
119) Out of the following,which is not a semiconductor material?
a) Si
b) Ge
c) GaAs
d) Carbon
120) Which of the following is not an example of semiconductor electricity?
a) Si
b) Silver
c) Ge
d) Si & Ge
121) The material which does not conduct electricity are called as_____
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Superconductors
122) An Insulator has ____electrical conductivity
a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) Infinity
123) A semiconductor in its pure form is known as_________semiconductor.
a) Intrinsic
b) Extrinsic
c) Dopped
d) None of these
123) At 0° K,pure Silicon acts as,
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Superconductors
124) At 0° K,pure Germanium acts as,
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Superconductors
125) Majority charge carriers in P-type extrinsic semiconductors are_____
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Free electrons
d) None of these
126) Minority charge carriers in P-type extrinsic semiconductors are_____
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Free electrons
d) None of these
127) Majority charge carriers in n-type extrinsic semiconductors are_____
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Free electrons
d) None of these
128) Minority charge carriers in P-type extrinsic semiconductors are_____
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Free electrons
d) None of these
129) To prepare N-type Semiconductor,the element to be added to Si is
a) Phosphrous
b) Gallium
c) Indium
d) Copper
130) Which of the following is a pentavalent impurity?
a) Phosphrous
b) Gallium
c) Indium
d) Copper
131) For formation of N-type Semiconductor,_______types of atoms are added to Si & Ge.
a) Trivalent
b) Pentavalent
c) Tetravalent
d) None of these
132) To prepare p-type Semiconductor,the element to be added to Si is
a) Phosphrous
b) Gallium
c) Arsenic
d) Copper
133) Which of the following is a trivalent impurity?
a) Phosphrous
b) Gallium
c) Antimany
d) Copper
134) For formation of p-type Semiconductor,_______types of atoms are added to Si & Ge.
a) Trivalent
b) Pentavalent
c) Tetravalent
d) None of these
135) Gallium,Indium,boron And aluminium are ______Impurities.
a) Trivalent
b) Pentavalent
c) Tetravalent
d) Hectavalent
136) When small amount of pentavalent impurity is added to pure semiconductor(Si & Ge) , it is known
as______
a) N-type semiconductor
b) P-type semiconductor
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) Pure semiconductor
137) When small amount of trivalent impurity is added to pure semiconductor(Si & Ge) , it is known
as______
a) N-type semiconductor
b) P-type semiconductor
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) Pure semiconductor
138) Out of the following the pentavalent impurity is____
a) Gallium
b) Boron
c) Indium
d) Anitmany
139) Out of the following the trivalent impurity is____
a) Arsenic
b) Phosphorus
c) Indium
d) Anitmany
140) _____Impurities form N-type semiconductor
a) Donor
b) Acceptor
c) Donor as well as acceptor
d) Zero
141) _____Impurities form p-type semiconductor
a) Donor
b) Acceptor
c) Donor as well as acceptor
d) Zero
142) Arsenic, Antimany, Phosphrous are_____element
a) Trivalent
b) Pentavalent
c) Tetravalent
d) Hectavalent
143) Impurities like Arsenic, Antimany, Phosphrous,bismuth which produce N-type semiconductors are
known as_____
a) Donor impurities
b) Acceptor impurities
c) Conducting elements
d) Material impurities
144) Impurities like Gallium,Indium,Boron,Aluminium which produce p-type semiconductors are known
as_____
a) Donor impurities
b) Acceptor impurities
c) Conducting elements
d) Material impurities
145) Pure Silicon & Germanium is known as_________semiconductor.
a) Intrinsic
b) Extrinsic
c) Dopped
d) None of these
146) In N-type semiconductor,electrons are _____carriers & holes are _____carriers
a) Majority,minority
b) Minority,majority
c) Minority,Minority
d) None of these
147) In p-type semiconductor,electrons are _____carriers & holes are _____carriers
a) Majority,minority
b) Minority,majority
c) Minority,Minority
d) None of these
148) Number of valence electrons in Silicon or Germanium is,
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
149) The energy level of all electrons in a particular orbit of an atom is called as,
a) Energy band
b) Orbital band
c) Band Gap
d) Electron band
150) The band of energy occupied by free electron or conducting electrons are ,
a) Electron band
b) conduction Band
c) Valence Band
d) Forbidden band
151) The band of energy occupied by valence electrons are ,
a) Electron band
b) conduction Band
c) Valence Band
d) Forbidden band
152) Overlapping of Valence band & conduction band is observed in,
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Bad conductors
153) In __________valence band is completely filled with electrons,
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Bad conductors
154) Forbidden energy gap is small in_____
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Bad conductors
155) Forbidden energy gap is large in_____
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Metals
156) Free electrons are not available in_____
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Semiconductors
d) Super conductors
157) The forbidden energy gap in Ge is___
a) 0.3eV
b) 0.7eV
c) 1.1eV
d) 2.2eV
158) The forbidden energy gap in Si is___
a) 0.3eV
b) 0.7eV
c) 1.1eV
d) 1.5eV
159) ____and____are the examples of pentavaelnt impurity.
a) Arsenic & Antimany
b) Arsenic and Indium
c) Boron and antimony
d) Gallium & Indium
160) ____and____are the examples of acceptor impurity.
a) Arsenic & Antimany
b) Arsenic and Indium
c) Boron and antimony
d) Gallium & Indium
161) The electrical conductivity of semiconductor at absolute zero is_____
a) 0.72eV for Ge and 1.12eV for Si
b) 0.72eV for Si and 1.12eV for Ge
c) 2.4eV for Ge and 1.7eV for Si
d) 2.4eV for Si and 1.7eV for Ge
162) The electrical conductivity of semiconductor depends on,
a) Length
b) Diameter
c) Temperature
d) Pressure
163) As temperature of semiconductor increases,its conductivity,
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Decreases or Increases
d) Increases
164) As temperature of semiconductor decreases,its conductivity,
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Decreases or Increases
d) Increases
165) As temperature of semiconductor increases,its resistance,
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Decreases or Increases
d) Increases
166) As temperature of conductor increases,its conductivity,
a) Decreases
b) Zero
c) Increases
d) Infinity
167) As temperature of conductor increases,its resistance,
a) Decreases
b) Zero
c) Increases
d) Infinity
168) As temperature of insulator increases,its conductivity,
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Reduces
d) Increases
169) The carrier concentration in an intrinsic semiconductor______with increase in temperature.
a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Decreases or Increases
d) Increases
170) At absolute zero temperature ,intrinsic semiconductor acts as,
a) Conductor
b) Semiconductor
c) an Insulator
d) Super conductor
171) Flow of current due to free electrons and holes is observed in,
a) Conductor
b) Semiconductor
c) an Insulator
d) Super conductor
172) The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor(Si,Ge) is known as,
a) Dopping
b) Impurification
c) Addition
d) Extrinsic
173) Intrinsic semiconductors has,____
a) n electrons>n holes
b) n electrons<n holes
c) n electrons=n holes
d) n electrons≠n holes
174) N-type semiconductors has,____
a) n electrons>n holes
b) n electrons<n holes
c) n electrons=n holes
d) n electrons≠n holes
175) P-type semiconductors has,____
a) n electrons>n holes
b) n electrons<n holes
c) n electrons=n holes
d) n electrons≠n holes
176) Electrons are majority charge carriers and holes are minority charge carriers in
a) N-type semiconductor
b) P-type semiconductor
c) PN junction diode
d) Pure semiconductor
177) Holes are majority charge carriers and electrons are minority charge carriers in
a) N-type semiconductor
b) P-type semiconductor
c) PN junction diode
d) Pure semiconductor
178) When half part of a Ge crystal is doped with trivalent impurity and half part with pentavalent impurity,then formation of _____takes place.
a) PN junction diode
b) Transistor
c) Triode
d) Extrinsic semiconductor
179) The border where P region meets with N region in a PN junction diode is known as ,
a) Border
b) Junction
c) Crossing
d) Boundary
180) The voltage developed across the depletion region in PN junction diode is called as,
a) Diode potential
b) Barrier potential
c) Cross potential
d) PN potential
181) When P region is connected to positive terminal of battery and N region is connected to negative terminal of the battery then the diode is said to be connected in,
a) Forward bias
b) Reverse bias
c) Straight bias
d) Cross Bias
182) When P region is connected to negative terminal of battery and N region is connected to positive terminal of the battery then the diode is said to be connected in,
a) Forward bias
b) Reverse bias
c) Straight bias
d) Cross Bias
183) In forward bias,PN junction diode, the width of depletion region ___
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Increases or Decreases
184) In reverse bias, PN junction diode, the width of depletion region ___
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Increases or Decreases
185) The forward biased diode operates as ____
a) Open switch
b) Closed switch
c) High resistance
d) Infinite resistance
186) The reverse biased diode operates as ____
a) Open switch
b) Closed switch
c) High resistance
d) Infinite resistance
187) The electrical resistance of PN junction diode is___during forward bias
a) High
b) Infinite
c) Low
d) None of these
188) A rectifier is a device which converts ,
a) AC to DC
b) DC to AC
c) AC to AC
d) DC to DC
189) Barrier potential for Silicon is____And for Germanium is____
a) 0.3V & 0.7V
b) 0.7V & 0.3V
c) 1.2V & 1.4V
d) 1.4V & 1.2V
190) In forward bias PN junction diode,
a) P region is connected to +ve of battery & N region is connected to –ve of battery
b) P region is connected to -ve of battery & N region is connected to +ve of battery
c) both side are connected to +ve of battery
d) both side are connected to -ve of battery
191) In reverse bias PN junction diode,
a) P region is connected to +ve of battery & N region is connected to –ve of battery
b) P region is connected to -ve of battery & N region is connected to +ve of battery
c) both side are connected to +ve of battery
d) both side are connected to -ve of battery
192) In forward bias PN junction diode,
a) Diode current increases sharply beyond 0.6V of external voltage
b) Diode current decreases sharply beyond 0.6V of external voltage
c) Diode current remains constant throughout the increase in voltage
d) None of these
193) Which of the following is not an application of PN junction diode?
a) Used as rectifier in DC power supply b) Used as wave shaper in clipping circuits
c) Used to block DC and allows AC
d) with some alterations ,it is used as zener diode
194) The reverse bias diode repels the majority charge carriers ___
a) Towards the junction
b) Away from the junction
c) In the other region
c) In minority charge carriers
195) The leakage current in reverse bias diode is due to flow of___
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Electrons
d) Holes
196) The minimum voltage required for conducting the diode is known as____
a) Operating voltage
b) Conducting voltage
c) Knee voltage or cut in voltage
d) Critical Voltage
197) The value of forward voltage above which forward current increases speedily is known as__
a) Operating voltage
b) Conducting voltage
c) Knee voltage or cut in voltage
d) Critical Voltage
198) The knee voltage for Si diode is ____ & for Ge diode is____
a) 0.7V,0.3V
b) 1.1V,0.5V
c) 1.5V,0.8V
d) 2.2V,1.1V
199) The PN junction diode is used in____
a) Switch
b) Clipping circuits
c) Demodulator circuit
d) All of these
200) When the diode doesn’t conduct the majority current carrier, very small amount of current flows through reverse biased diode is called as______
a) Forward current
b) Leakage current
c) Peak current
d) Constant current
201) The value of permittivity of free space (0 ) is,
a) 8.85 X 10-12 C 2 /Nm2
b) 9 X 109 C 2 /Nm2
c) 1/ 8.85 X 10- 12 C 2 /Nm2
d) 1/9 X 109 C2 /Nm2
Unit 3 : Heat and optics
a) average
b) product
c) sum
d) all of above
2) heating produces ___of body
a) solidification
b) expansion
c) contraction
d) none of above
a) solidification
b) expansion
c) contraction
d) none of above
3) temperature is the measure of____of k.e of the molecules of the body
a) average
b) product
c) sum
d) none of these
13) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of ___of water by 10 c is called as kilocalorie.
a) 1gm
b) 1kg
c) 1liter
d) 1ml
a) average
b) product
c) sum
d) none of these
4) the si unit of temperature is,
a) °c
b) °f
c) °k
d) °r
a) °c
b) °f
c) °k
d) °r
5) the si unit of heat is,
a) joule
b) erg
c) newton
d) dyne
a) joule
b) erg
c) newton
d) dyne
6) the mks unit of heat is,
a) kilocalorie
b) calorie
c) joule
d) erg
a) kilocalorie
b) calorie
c) joule
d) erg
7) the energy which flows from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature is,
a) sound
b) light
c) heat
d) wind
a) sound
b) light
c) heat
d) wind
8) heat is__________property
a) an intensive
b) an extensive
c) an intensive as well as extensive
d) none of these
a) an intensive
b) an extensive
c) an intensive as well as extensive
d) none of these
9) temperature is__________property
a) an intensive
b) an extensive
c) an intensive as well as extensive
d) none of these
a) an intensive
b) an extensive
c) an intensive as well as extensive
d) none of these
10) which of the following is a correct statement?
a) temperature is a cause and heat is its effect
b) heat and temperature both are causes
c) heat and temperature both are effects
d) heat is a cause and temperature is its effect
a) temperature is a cause and heat is its effect
b) heat and temperature both are causes
c) heat and temperature both are effects
d) heat is a cause and temperature is its effect
11) which of the following is not a unit of heat?
a) joule
b) fahrenheit
c) calorie
d) kilocalorie
b) fahrenheit
c) calorie
d) kilocalorie
12) which of the following is not a unit of temperature?
a) kelvin
b) degree fahrenheit
c) calorie
a) kelvin
b) degree fahrenheit
c) calorie
d) degree celcius
13) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of ___of water by 10 c is called as kilocalorie.
a) 1gm
b) 1kg
c) 1liter
d) 1ml
14) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of ___of water by 10
c is called as
calorie.
a) 1gm
b) 1kg
c) 1liter
d) 1ml
a) 1gm
b) 1kg
c) 1liter
d) 1ml
15) 1kcal is equal to,
a) 4.184j
b) 1.484j
c) 4184j
d) 1484j
a) 4.184j
b) 1.484j
c) 4184j
d) 1484j
16) 1 calorie=_____j
a) 4.186
b) 6.63
c) 4186
d) 6630
a) 4.186
b) 6.63
c) 4186
d) 6630
17) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by 10
c is called as ______.
a) 1 erg
b) 1calorie
c) 1 kilocalorie
d) 1joule
c is called as ______.
a) 1 erg
b) 1calorie
c) 1 kilocalorie
d) 1joule
18) the scale in which lower fixed point and upper fixed point are divided into 100 equal parts is
known as_______
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
19) the scale in which lower fixed point and upper fixed point are divided into 180 equal parts
is known as_______
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
20) the scale in which lower fixed point(melting point of ice is takem as 273) and upper fixed
point(boiling point of water) are divided into 100 equal parts is known as_______
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
a) celcius scale
b) faherenheit scale
c) kelvin scale
d) standard scale
21) the temperature at which pressure as well as volume of gas theoretically becomes zero is
called as ,
a) absolute zero temperature
b) melting point
c) boiling point
d) none of these
a) absolute zero temperature
b) melting point
c) boiling point
d) none of these
22) the value of absolute zero temperature is,
a) -273°k
b) 0° c
c) -273 ° c
d) -256° c23) if c is temperature in 0°c,f is temperature in °f,k is temperature in
°k then,
a) c= f-32/1.8
b) c=k-273
c) f=1.8c+32
d) all of these
a) -273°k
b) 0° c
c) -273 ° c
d) -256° c23) if c is temperature in 0°c,f is temperature in °f,k is temperature in
°k then,
a) c= f-32/1.8
b) c=k-273
c) f=1.8c+32
d) all of these
24) convert 22°c to 0°f
a) 71.6°f
b) 34°f
c) 251° f
d) 76.1° f
a) 71.6°f
b) 34°f
c) 251° f
d) 76.1° f
25) convert 45°
c to 0°f
a) 101° f
b) 125° f
c) 113° f
d) 127° f
a) 101° f
b) 125° f
c) 113° f
d) 127° f
26) convert 30°
c to 0°k
a) 303° k
b) 327° k
c) 293° k
d) 313° k
a) 303° k
b) 327° k
c) 293° k
d) 313° k
27) convert 104°
f to 0°c
a) 40° c
b) 50° c
c) 80° c
d) 20° c
a) 40° c
b) 50° c
c) 80° c
d) 20° c
28) body temperature 98.6°
f =___°
c
a) 37° c
b) 47° c
c) 27° c
d) 97° c
a) 37° c
b) 47° c
c) 27° c
d) 97° c
29) normal temperature of human body is =___°
c
a) 0° c
b) 27°c
c) 37° c
d) 50° c
a) 0° c
b) 27°c
c) 37° c
d) 50° c
30) normal temperature of human body is,
a) 27°
f
b) 50°f
c) 100° f
d) 98.6° f
b) 50°f
c) 100° f
d) 98.6° f
31) 110°f is equal to___
a) 417°k
b) 287° k
c) 216°k
d) 316.33° k
a) 417°k
b) 287° k
c) 216°k
d) 316.33° k
32) 300° k is equal to,
a) 70° f
b) 90.6° f
c) 80.6°f
d) 100° f
a) 70° f
b) 90.6° f
c) 80.6°f
d) 100° f
33) 320°
a is equal to,
a) 57°c
b) 47° c
c) 37°c
d) 67°c
b) 47° c
c) 37°c
d) 67°c
34) convert 300 °
k to °
c
a) 30° c
b) 27° c
c) 360°c
d) 42°c
a) 30° c
b) 27° c
c) 360°c
d) 42°c
35) the process of transfer of heat in which heat is transferred from a part of body at high
temperature to a part of body at low temperature without actual movement of particles is
known as,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
36) the process of transfer of heat in which heat is transferred from a part of body at high
temperature to part of body at low temperature with actual movement of particles is known as,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
37) in conduction there is,
a) bodily movement of particles
b) no bodily movement of patricles
c) with & without bodily movement
d) none of these
a) bodily movement of particles
b) no bodily movement of patricles
c) with & without bodily movement
d) none of these
38) in convection there is,
a) bodily movement of particles
b) no bodily movement of patricles
c) vibrational movement of particles
d) none of these.
a) bodily movement of particles
b) no bodily movement of patricles
c) vibrational movement of particles
d) none of these.
39) the process of heat transfer when metal rod is heated at one end is,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
40) the process of heat transfer when water in beaker is heated from bottom is,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
41) the process of heat transfer from sun to earth takes place by,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
b) convection
c) radiation
d) reflection
42) transmission of heat energy through liquids or gases takes place by process of,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) melting
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) melting
43) transmission of heat energy through metals takes place by process of,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
44) out of the following process of heat transfer material medium is not required?
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
45) only_______takes place in vaccum as well as material medium.
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
46) the process by which heat reaches to earth is,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
47) the fastest process of heat transfer is ,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
48) the slower process of heat transfer is ,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refraction
49) out of the following which surface radiates more heat at a given temperature?
a) black & smooth
b) black & rough
c) white & smooth
d) white & rough
a) black & smooth
b) black & rough
c) white & smooth
d) white & rough
50) material medium is not necessary in,
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
51) heat is transferred in form of______waves, in radiation
a) stationary
b) electromagnetic
c) transverse
d) longitudinal
a) stationary
b) electromagnetic
c) transverse
d) longitudinal
52) which of the following is not a unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity(k) ?
a) cal/cm°c sec
b) kcal/m°c sec
a) cal/cm°c sec
b) kcal/m°c sec
c) watt/ sec°k
d) watt/m°k
d) watt/m°k
53) temperature gradient is equal to,
a) change in temperature/time
b) time/change in temperature
c) distance/change in temperature
d) change in temperature/distance
54) temperature gradient is defined as,
a) change in temperature per unit time
b) change in time per unit change in temperature
c) change in temperature per unit change in distance in direction of heat flow
d) change in distance per unit change in temperature
a) change in temperature/time
b) time/change in temperature
c) distance/change in temperature
d) change in temperature/distance
54) temperature gradient is defined as,
a) change in temperature per unit time
b) change in time per unit change in temperature
c) change in temperature per unit change in distance in direction of heat flow
d) change in distance per unit change in temperature
55) unit of temperature gradient is,
a) m/0 c
b) sec/0 c
c) 0 c/m
d) 0 c/sec
a) m/0 c
b) sec/0 c
c) 0 c/m
d) 0 c/sec
56) the state in which temperature of substance goes on increasing w.r.t time is called as,
a) variable state
b) steady state
c) normal state
d) critical state
a) variable state
b) steady state
c) normal state
d) critical state
57) heat absorbed by the material>heat given out by the material is concerned with,
a) normal state
b) critical state
c) variable state
d) steady state
a) normal state
b) critical state
c) variable state
d) steady state
58) heat absorbed by the material=heat given out by the material is concerned with,
a) normal state
b) critical state
c) variable state
d) steady state
a) normal state
b) critical state
c) variable state
d) steady state
59) heat flowing through material of rod of unit area, in 1 sec for unit temperature gradient at steady state is known as,
a) conductivity
b) heat constant
c) coefficient of thermal conductivity d) thermal constant
a) conductivity
b) heat constant
c) coefficient of thermal conductivity d) thermal constant
60) as per law of thermal conducitivity , amount of heat flowing through the rod is___
a) directly proportional to cross sectional area
b) directly proportional to temperature gradient
c) directly proportional to time
d) all of these
61) the si unit of coefficient of thermal conducticity is,
a) watt-m- 0 k
b) watt/m- 0 k
c) m 0 k/watt
d) m/watt0 k
a) directly proportional to cross sectional area
b) directly proportional to temperature gradient
c) directly proportional to time
d) all of these
61) the si unit of coefficient of thermal conducticity is,
a) watt-m- 0 k
b) watt/m- 0 k
c) m 0 k/watt
d) m/watt0 k
62) the coefficient of thermal conductivity of good conductors of heat is,
a) low
b) medium
c) high
d) none of these
a) low
b) medium
c) high
d) none of these
63) which of the following material is not a bad conductor of heat?
a) plastic
b) wood
c) mica
d) plastic & mica both
a) plastic
b) wood
c) mica
d) plastic & mica both
64) which of the following material is not a good conductor of heat?
a) thermocole
b) mica
c) thermocole & mica both
d) copper
a) thermocole
b) mica
c) thermocole & mica both
d) copper
65) thermal resistor is_____the thermal conductivity.
a) reciprocal of
b) equal to
c) addition of
d) none of these
a) reciprocal of
b) equal to
c) addition of
d) none of these
66) which type of material is used as a heat sink in electronic circuits?
a) bad conducting
b) conducting
c) semiconducting
d) all of these
a) bad conducting
b) conducting
c) semiconducting
d) all of these
67) condenser coil in refrigerator is ideally made up of,
a) bad conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) good conductor
a) bad conductor
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) good conductor
68) davy’s safety lamp is covered by,
a) insulating material
b) good conducting material
c) semiconducting material
d) none of these
b) good conducting material
c) semiconducting material
d) none of these
69) which material is used in ice box?
a) bad conducting material
b) good conducting material
c) semiconducting material
d) none of these
a) bad conducting material
b) good conducting material
c) semiconducting material
d) none of these
70) handle of cooker is made up of,
a) good conducting material
b) semiconducting material
c) aluminium
d) bad conducting material
a) good conducting material
b) semiconducting material
c) aluminium
d) bad conducting material
71) room ventilation ,formation of trade winds,sea breeze are the applications of___
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) all of the above
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) all of the above
72) heat radiations in car,use of white clothes in summer are applications of____
a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
73) radiation can____
a) travel through vaccum
b) travel with speed of light
c) reflect,refract
d) all of these
b) convection
c) radiation
d) none of these
73) radiation can____
a) travel through vaccum
b) travel with speed of light
c) reflect,refract
d) all of these
74) for a fixed mass of gas,temperature of gas remaining constant,its pressure is inversely
proportional to its volume is,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
75) for a fixed mass of gas,pressure of gas remaining constant,its volume is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature is,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
76) for a fixed mass of gas,volume of gas remaining constant,its pressure is directly proportional to its absolute temperature is,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
77) a hot air balloon is an example of,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
78) if temperature of gas remains constant then the pressure of gas will be____
a) increase with increase in volume b) decrease with decrease in volume
c) decrease with decrease in volume d) none of these
80) the general gas equation is given by,
a) v=prt
b) pt=vr
c) p=vrt
d) pv=rt
proportional to its absolute temperature is,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
76) for a fixed mass of gas,volume of gas remaining constant,its pressure is directly proportional to its absolute temperature is,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
77) a hot air balloon is an example of,
a) boyle’s law
b) charle’s law
c) gay lussac’s law
d) newton’s law
78) if temperature of gas remains constant then the pressure of gas will be____
a) increase with increase in volume b) decrease with decrease in volume
c) decrease with decrease in volume d) none of these
79) if pressure of a gas remains constant , then volume of gas will ____
a) increase with temperature
b) decrease with temperature
d) decrease with increase in temperature
a) increase with temperature
b) decrease with temperature
d) decrease with increase in temperature
c) increase with decrease in temperature
a) v=prt
b) pt=vr
c) p=vrt
d) pv=rt
81) ideal gas equation is given by,
a) v=pkt
b) pt=vk
c) p=vkt
d) pv=kt
a) v=pkt
b) pt=vk
c) p=vkt
d) pv=kt
82) at n.t.p normal temperature =_____
a) 273°c
b) -273°c
c) 0° c
d) 0°k
a) 273°c
b) -273°c
c) 0° c
d) 0°k
83) at n.t.p normal temperature =_____
a) 273°c
b) -273°c
c) 0° c
d) 0°k
a) 273°c
b) -273°c
c) 0° c
d) 0°k
84) at n.t.p,atmospheric pressure p =_____
a) 1cm of hg
b) 76cm of hg
c) 1n/m2
d) 76 atmosphere
a) 1cm of hg
b) 76cm of hg
c) 1n/m2
d) 76 atmosphere
85) at n.t.p,atmospheric pressure p =_____
a) 1cm of hg
b) 1 atmosphere
c) 1n/m2
d) 76 atmosphere
a) 1cm of hg
b) 1 atmosphere
c) 1n/m2
d) 76 atmosphere
86) specific heat of gas at constant pressure cp is always_____specific heat of gas at constant volume cv.
a) equal to
b) greater than
c) less than
d) same as
a) equal to
b) greater than
c) less than
d) same as
87) cooking becomes faster in pressure cooker because the increase in vapour pressure
a) increases specific heat
b) decreases specific heat
c) decreases boiling point
d) increases boiling point
a) increases specific heat
b) decreases specific heat
c) decreases boiling point
d) increases boiling point
88) for 1 kg mole of a gas, the value of universal gas constant r in equation, pv=rt is,
a) 83.149 j/°k kg mole
b) 0.83149 j/° k kg mole
c) 8314.91 j/°k kg mole
d) 4200 j/°k kg mole
a) 83.149 j/°k kg mole
b) 0.83149 j/° k kg mole
c) 8314.91 j/°k kg mole
d) 4200 j/°k kg mole
89) specific heat at constant pressure cp & at constant volume cv are related as,
a) cp - cv = r/j
b) cp-cv = γ
c) both a & c
d) none of these
a) cp - cv = r/j
b) cp-cv = γ
c) both a & c
d) none of these
90) difference between the specific heat cp and cv is ,
a) less than zero
b) negative
c) both a & b
d) greater than zero
a) less than zero
b) negative
c) both a & b
d) greater than zero
91) ratio of the specific heat cp to cv is ,
a) less than 1
b) greater than 1
c) between a & b
d) none of these
a) less than 1
b) greater than 1
c) between a & b
d) none of these
92) thickness of a plate is 10cm. the temperature of two faces are 90°c and 60°c. find the temperature gradient.
a) 30° c/cm
b) 3°c/cm
c) 1° c/cm
d) 70°c/cm
a) 30° c/cm
b) 3°c/cm
c) 1° c/cm
d) 70°c/cm
93) thickness of a plate is 8cm. the temperature of two faces are 100°
c and -20°
c. find the temperature gradient.
a) 10°c/cm
b) 20° c/cm
c) 25° c/cm
d) 15° c/cm
a) 10°c/cm
b) 20° c/cm
c) 25° c/cm
d) 15° c/cm
94) a metal rod 10cm long, of area 0.9cm2 has a temperature difference of 60°c. calculate
the heat flowing in 1 minute(given k=0.14cal/cm°csec)
a) 45.36 cal
b) 23.6cal
c) 57.8 cal
d) none of these
a) 45.36 cal
b) 23.6cal
c) 57.8 cal
d) none of these
95) calculate the heat conducted in 1 minute through a metal rod of area 0.2cm2 has a
temperature gradient 50°
c/m. (given k=0.08kcal/m°csec)
a) 24kcal
b) 48kcal
c) 72kcal
d) 59kcal
a) 24kcal
b) 48kcal
c) 72kcal
d) 59kcal
96) a gas at 25°
c has its temperature raised so that its volume doubles,pressure
remains constant.find its final temperature.
a) 273° c
b) 323° c
c) 293° c
d) 300° c
remains constant.find its final temperature.
a) 273° c
b) 323° c
c) 293° c
d) 300° c
97) 100ml of air is measured at 20°
c.if its temperature is raised to 50°
c,what will be its volume, if pressure is constant?
a) 90ml
b) 80ml
c) 110.24ml
d) 100ml
a) 90ml
b) 80ml
c) 110.24ml
d) 100ml
98) the volume of a certain quantity of a gas at ntp is 24 liters.what will be pressure exerted by same quantity of gas in a gas cylinder of 20 liters at 27°c.
a) 100.22 cm of hg
b) 70 cm of hg
c) 90cm of hg
d) 120.7 cm of hg
a) 100.22 cm of hg
b) 70 cm of hg
c) 90cm of hg
d) 120.7 cm of hg
99) a certain mass of gas occupies 40cm3
at 27° c .find its volume at 57° c,pressure is constant
a) 34cm3
b) 38cm3
c) 44cm3
d) 50cm3
at 27° c .find its volume at 57° c,pressure is constant
a) 34cm3
b) 38cm3
c) 44cm3
d) 50cm3
100) to what temperature a gas at 0°c must be heated at a constant pressure so that its volume doubles?
a) 200° c
b) 300° c
c) 0°c
d) 273° c
a) 200° c
b) 300° c
c) 0°c
d) 273° c
101) a glass bulb contains air at pressure of 76 cm of hg at 27°c when its volume is 100cc.it is placed in a oil at temperature of 327°
c. what will be the pressure inside ,when the volume of the bulb becomes 152cc?
a) 120cm of hg
b) 100 cm of hg
c) 80 cm of hg
d) 60cm of hg
a) 120cm of hg
b) 100 cm of hg
c) 80 cm of hg
d) 60cm of hg
102) calculate v2 if v1=20cc,t1=300°k ,t2=340°
k
a) 25cc
b) 27cc
c) 30cc
d) 22.27cc
a) 25cc
b) 27cc
c) 30cc
d) 22.27cc
103) calculate p2 if p1=80cm of hg,t1=300°k ,t2=400°
k
a) 90cm of hg
b) 80 cm of hg
c) 106.67cm of hg
d) 70cm of hg
a) 90cm of hg
b) 80 cm of hg
c) 106.67cm of hg
d) 70cm of hg
104) the difference between two specific heats of a gas is 1500 & their ratio is 1:5.find cp & cv
a) 1875 ,375 units
b) 1900, 400 units
c) 1720,220 units
d) 2000,500 units
106) the difference between two specific heats of a gas is 0.055 j/kg°k .find j,
if r=234.5 mks units
a) 4280j/kcal
b) 4000j/kcal
c) 4280j/cal
d) 4000j/cal
a) 1875 ,375 units
b) 1900, 400 units
c) 1720,220 units
d) 2000,500 units
105) the difference between two specific heats of a gas is 4000j/kg°
k & their ratio is 1.4.
find cp & cv.
a) 14000 j/kg° k ,10000 j/kg° k
b) 13000 j/kg° k ,9000 j/kg° k
c) 12000 j/kg° k ,8000 j/kg° k
d) 10000j/kg° k ,6000 j/kg° k
a) 14000 j/kg° k ,10000 j/kg° k
b) 13000 j/kg° k ,9000 j/kg° k
c) 12000 j/kg° k ,8000 j/kg° k
d) 10000j/kg° k ,6000 j/kg° k
a) 4280j/kcal
b) 4000j/kcal
c) 4280j/cal
d) 4000j/cal
107) the ratio of two specific heat for a gas is 1.4 and r/m=0.0714.calculate values of cp & cv.
a) 0.2499 j/kg0 k ,0.1785 j/kg°k
b) 0.3025 j/kg0 k ,0.1640 j/kg°k
c) 0.2100 j/kg0 k ,0.1375 j/kg°k
d) 0.1640 j/kg0 k ,0.3025j/kg°k
a) 0.2499 j/kg0 k ,0.1785 j/kg°k
b) 0.3025 j/kg0 k ,0.1640 j/kg°k
c) 0.2100 j/kg0 k ,0.1375 j/kg°k
d) 0.1640 j/kg0 k ,0.3025j/kg°k
108) as per the law of reflection, which of the following is correct one
a) (only) angle of incidence is equal to angle of relfection
b) (only) incident ray , reflected ray and normal to the reflecting surface lie in one plane
c) (both) (a) and (b)
d) none of these
a) (only) angle of incidence is equal to angle of relfection
b) (only) incident ray , reflected ray and normal to the reflecting surface lie in one plane
c) (both) (a) and (b)
d) none of these
109) refraction is defined as the property of light on account of which light---
a) changes its path when it enters from one medium to other medium
b) bounces back
c) continues to travel in the same direction when it enters from one medium to other
d) none of these
a) changes its path when it enters from one medium to other medium
b) bounces back
c) continues to travel in the same direction when it enters from one medium to other
d) none of these
110) when light travel from one medium to another medium there is change in -----
a) velocity
b) direction
c) wavelength
d) all of these
a) velocity
b) direction
c) wavelength
d) all of these
111) when light travel from one medium to another, the parameter that remain constant is-----
a) velocity
b) direction
c) wavelength
d) frequency
a) velocity
b) direction
c) wavelength
d) frequency
112) a wave of light of single frequency or wavelength is called----
a) polychromatic
b) monochromatic light
c) coherent
d) non-coherent
a) polychromatic
b) monochromatic light
c) coherent
d) non-coherent
113) as per snell’s law for a given pair of media, the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction-----
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases then decreases
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases then decreases
114) when light travel from vacuum (air) into a glass black, its speed------
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) all of these
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) all of these
115) snell’s law is concerned with-----
a) reflection of light
b) refraction of light
c) transmission of light
d) diffraction of light
116) snell’s law state that, for any two media, the -----
a) product of sin i to sin r is constant
b) ratio of sin i to sin r is constant
c) sum of sin i to sin r is constant
d) difference of sin i to sin r is constant
117) refractive index of air or vacuum is--------
a) zero
b) one
c) two
d) three
a) reflection of light
b) refraction of light
c) transmission of light
d) diffraction of light
116) snell’s law state that, for any two media, the -----
a) product of sin i to sin r is constant
b) ratio of sin i to sin r is constant
c) sum of sin i to sin r is constant
d) difference of sin i to sin r is constant
117) refractive index of air or vacuum is--------
a) zero
b) one
c) two
d) three
118) as per refraction, when light enters from air to (rare) to glass (denser) medium-----
a) i<r
b) r>i
c) i=r
a) i<r
b) r>i
c) i=r
d) i>r
119) as per refraction, when light enters from glass (denser) to air to (rare) medium-----
a) i<r
b) r>i
c) i=r
d) i>r
120) when light enters from air to (rare) to glass (denser) medium, then ag= is------
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) none of these
a) i<r
b) r>i
c) i=r
d) i>r
120) when light enters from air to (rare) to glass (denser) medium, then ag= is------
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) none of these
121) when light enters from glass to (denser) to air (rare) medium, then ag= is------
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) none of these
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) none of these
122) when ray of light travels from denser medium to rare medium and if angle of incidence
is greater than critical angle, then only reflection take place. this phenomenon is known as
a) total internal reflection
b) total internal refraction
c) interference
d) diffraction
a) total internal reflection
b) total internal refraction
c) interference
d) diffraction
123) total internal reflection (t.i.r) states that, if light travelling from high refractive index to
low refractive index and if angle of incidence is greater than critical angle then-------
a) only refraction take place
b) reflection as well as refraction take place
c) only reflection take place
d) none of these
a) only refraction take place
b) reflection as well as refraction take place
c) only reflection take place
d) none of these
124) the critical angle θc is defined as the angle of incidence at which angle of refraction is----
a) 450
b) 900
c) less than 450
d) greater than 900
a) 450
b) 900
c) less than 450
d) greater than 900
125) conditions for t.i.r.(total internal reflection) ----------
a) (only) angle of incidence should be greater than θc (critical angle)
b) (only) ú1 should be greater than ú2
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these.
a) (only) angle of incidence should be greater than θc (critical angle)
b) (only) ú1 should be greater than ú2
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these.
126) optical fiber works on the principle of -----
a) total internal refraction
b) only reflection
c) only refraction
d) total internal reflection
a) total internal refraction
b) only reflection
c) only refraction
d) total internal reflection
127) communication optical fiber has cylindrical ------ surrounded with cylindrical coat of ----
coated with ---
a) protective skin, cladding, core
b) cladding, protective skin, core
c) core, cladding, protective skin
d) core, protective skin, cladding me
a) protective skin, cladding, core
b) cladding, protective skin, core
c) core, cladding, protective skin
d) core, protective skin, cladding me